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ATPL Questions Directory

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Refer to figure. The operational hours of the ARO in local time are..

A) 05:00-20:00.

B) 00:00-24:00. ✓

C) 05:00-21:00.

D) 04:00-20:00.

Refer to figure. A VFR flight arrives at LDLO (elevation 154 ft). What is the height of the traffic circuit?

A) 800 ft AGL ✓

B) 1500 ft AGL

C) 1000 ft AGL

D) 1200 ft AGL

Refer to figure. The first reporting point when departing for a VFR flight from LDSB to the north, to join the ADRIA 4 route, will be..

A) Sumartin (43 17 12N, 016 52 25E).

B) Omi (43 26 31N, 016 41 49E).

C) Supetar (43 22 57N, 016 33 05E). ✓

D) Puia (43 21 05N, 016 43 50E).

Given the following information, at what distance from the destination should descent be commenced? Altitude: 3500 feet Rate of descent: 300 feet per minute Ground speed: 135 kt

A) 26 NM ✓

B) 30 NM

C) 28 NM

D) 20 NM

Given the following information, at what distance should the pilot commence the descent in order to arrive overhead the airfield at 2000 ft? Cruise level: FL95 GS: 155 kt TAS: constant Wind component: negligible Temperature: ISA QNH: 1030 hPa Rate of descent: 500 ft/min

A) 41 NM ✓

B) 45 NM

C) 48 NM

D) 38 NM

Given the following information, what is the expected leg time? Leg track : 090° Distance : 100 NM TAS : 350 kt Wind : 030°/100 kt

A) 23 minutes

B) 15 minutes

C) 21 minutes ✓

D) 17 minutes

How many feet you have to climb to reach FL75? Given: Departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft QNH = 1023 hPa Temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 7800 ft.

B) 6600 ft.

C) 6000 ft.

D) 6300 ft. ✓

Given the following information, what heading must be selected in order to maintain the desired track DTK? DTK: 090° TAS: 380 kt Wind: 060°/60 kt

A) 100°

B) 085° ✓

C) 055°

D) 095°

Calculate the time it will take to fly from A to B on a cross country flight given the data below. Distance A to B: 83 NM TAS: 120 kt TT: 130° W/V: 022°/23 kt

A) 37.7 minutes

B) 39.8 minutes ✓

C) 38.3 minutes

D) 36.9 minutes

The elevation of the departure airport is 2500 ft. An aircraft has to climb to FL105 with a rate of climb of 750 ft/min. The QNH is 995 hPa. Determine the climb time

A) 10 min. ✓

B) 9 min.

C) 11 min.

D) 12 min.

On a VFR flight, the traffic circuit altitude has to be established 5 NM before reaching the destination aerodrome. The descent must begin no later than how many nautical miles’ ground distance from the airfield? Rate of descent: 500 ft/min Ground speed during descent: 130 kt Initial altitude: 4500 ft AMSL Traffic circuit altitude: 2500 ft AMSL

A) 9 NM

B) 25 NM

C) 14 NM ✓

D) 20 NM

Refer to figure. The true course is 042°.The variation in the area is 6°W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:

A) 044°

B) 052° ✓

C) 058°

D) 040°

For a flight leg, the following data is assumed: True course = 130° W/V = 180/30 TAS = 200 kt Determine the WCA and GS of this leg.

A) WCA = +7° GS = 222 kt.

B) WCA = +7° GS = 180 kt. ✓

C) WCA = -7° GS = 222 kt.

D) WCA = -7° GS = 180 kt.

VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:

A) 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. ✓

B) the highest obstacle.

C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle.

D) 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.

How many VFR corridors are published according to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual ALICANTE Charts 19-1,19-2,19-3?

A) 5

B) 4

C) 2 ✓

D) 1

Refer to DUBROVNIK - charts 19-1 and 19-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many VFR arrivals to Dubrovnik are published?

A) 1

B) 4

C) 5 ✓

D) 8

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When approaching Alicante, what is the procedure if you experience a communication failure?

A) Set transponder 7600, proceed according to your filled flight plan if no instructions have been received previously, otherwise follow latest ATC instructions.

B) Maintain heading and altitude for 7 minutes, then descend to 2 000 ft and proceed to closest VFR reporting point and hold, waiting for light signals.

C) Proceed in the direction of SW reporting point, assume a track east of South Route to S reporting point and maintain a maximum of 800 ft AMSL. ✓

D) Turn to the closest aerodrome without control zone, land there and inform ATC via phone call.

Refer to DUBROVNIK - charts 19-1 and 19-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance between reporting points E5 and B2?

A) 17 NM

B) 17 km ✓

C) 27.2 km

D) 5 NM

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching from the southeast via reporting point SE to land and cleared via Tabarca route, then via South route. What is your maximum allowed altitude?

A) 2000 ft AMSL

B) 8000 ft AMSL

C) 1500 ft AMSL ✓

D) FL 75

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the the frequency of the Linz ATIS. (Linz aerodrome: N48º15’ E014º11’)

A) 118.80 MHz

B) 116.60 MHz

C) 128.12 MHz ✓

D) 129.62 MHz

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You depart from Beilngries / EDNC aerodrome (N49 01.3 E011 29.1) and then continue eastbound at the minimum grid altitude. Your altimeter scale is incorrectly set to 1010 hPa while the QNH given by the aerodrome is 1001 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude, shortly after departure, if the temperature at 3 500 ft is 18°C? (Note: 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A) 3 230 ft

B) 3 690 ft

C) 3 580 ft

D) 3 310 ft ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On a VFR flight, you need to overfly Alicante CTR from NE1 and exit at SW. Who shall you be in contact with to get transit clearance and what would be an appropriate altitude?

A) Alicante Tower, 2 000 ft

B) Valencia Control, 1 000 ft

C) Alicante Tower, 4 000 ft

D) Valencia Control, 5 000 ft ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the magnetic bearing from reporting point N to NE?

A) 221°

B) 246°

C) 041°

D) 066° ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.Refer to München / Munich airport (EDDM, N048° 21.23' E11° 47.17'). What is the lowest altitude of class C airspace?

A) 4500 ft

B) FL65

C) FL100

D) 3500 ft ✓

Refer to DUBROVNIK - charts 19-1 and 19-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest obstacle on the chart?

A) 4000 ft AMSL

B) 1907 ft AMSL

C) 5017 ft AMSL ✓

D) 4000 ft AGL

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance between reporting points N and NE?

A) 13 NM

B) 7.5 km

C) 5 NM

D) 13 km ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the maximum altitude following the Tabarca route?

A) 1 500 ft ✓

B) 2 000 ft

C) 3 000 ft

D) FL070

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is on a VFR flight in Austria. The departure airfield is Ried Kirchheim (LOLK, N48° 12.8' E13° 20.8') and the destination is Freistadt (LOLF, N48° 30.9' E14° 24.5'). Which of the following radio frequencies should be used as a radio navigation aid if the pilot intends to fly directly to the destination?

A) 113.50 MHz (Freistadt VOR) ✓

B) 116.60 MHz (Linz VOR)

C) 122.32 (Freistadt aireld)

D) 327 kHz (Linz NDB)

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Along which route do you proceed if you experience a communication failure?

A) North corridor

B) East of South route ✓

C) Tabarca route

D) North route

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance between reporting points N and NE?

A) 7.5 km

B) 5 NM

C) 13 NM

D) 7 NM ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When approaching from the southwest, what is the last compulsory reporting point?

A) When entering the ATZ of LEAL

B) S ✓

C) SE

D) VOR/DME ALT

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the frequency of the navaid which is located approximately 11 NM south of Munich aerodrome? (Munich aerodrome: N48° 21.23' E011° 47.17')

A) 114.40 MHz

B) 115.00 MHz

C) 115.20 MHz

D) 112.30 MHz ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When following the highway from MIKE NDB (near 48°30'N 11°30'E) to the south until it crosses a railway from München, what is the highest obstacle within a range of 4 NM?

A) 2148 ft

B) 2175 ft ✓

C) 1749 ft

D) 1496 ft

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest obstacle on the chart?

A) 2 800 ft

B) 771 ft

C) 4 252 ft ✓

D) 864 ft

Refer to DUBROVNIK - charts 19-1 and 19-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the specified altitude following the arrival route from Sv. Andrija Island?

A) 1 500 ft AGL

B) 4 000 ft AMSL

C) 4 000 ft AGL

D) 1 500 ft AMSL ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the maximum permissible altitude for reaching the compulsory reporting point NE?

A) 1 500 m AGL

B) 2 000 ft AMSL ✓

C) 1 500 ft AMSL

D) 2 000 m AMSL

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching airfield MÜHLDORF (EDMY, N48° 16.77' E012° 30.02') from the east on track 270°. The descent should be planned to arrive at an altitude of 3500 ft approximately abeam of airfield ALTÖTTING. Atmospheric conditions = ISA, TAS = 110 kt, average wind = 300°(T) / 16 kt, rate of descent = 500 ft/min, cruising level = FL125. How many nautical miles from MÜHLDORF is your top of descent (ToD)?

A) 23 NM

B) 46 NM

C) 39 NM

D) 35 NM ✓

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When approaching Nantes, what is a valid Special VFR minimum?

A) The minimum ceiling for Special VFR procedures is 700 ft AMSL.

B) Departures to the west have to maintain an altitude of not more than 1 000 ft AMSL. ✓

C) Arrivals from the east have to maintain an altitude of not more than 1 000 ft AGL.

D) VFR traffic must maintain a minimum distance of 800 metres from clouds.

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest obstacle on the chart?

A) 2 500 ft AMSL

B) 1 000 ft AMSL

C) 912 ft AMSL ✓

D) 369 ft AGL

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance and true course from RODING VOR (RDG, N49°02.5' E012°31.5') to THALMÄSSING-WAIZENHOFEN (EDPW, N49° 03.85' E011° 12.57') airfield?

A) 272°, 39 NM

B) 092°, 52 NM

C) 272°, 52 NM ✓

D) 092°, 39 NM

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic course for a flight from FREISTADT in Austria (LOLF, N48°30.9' E14°24.5') to FÜRSTENZELL in Germany (EDMF, N48°31.1' E013°20.8'):

A) 256°

B) 273°

C) 267° ✓

D) 270°

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On a VFR flight, you need to transit around Nantes airport. Who shall you contact to inform about your intentions?

A) Nantes/Atlantique

B) Nantes Tower

C) Nantes Approach

D) Nantes Information ✓

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many VFR approaches to Nantes are published?

A) 4 ✓

B) 3

C) 5

D) 1

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. To which risk should you pay special attention?

A) East traffic circuits should be preferred for noise abatement reasons.

B) A lighted obstacle in front of threshold 03 might be mistaken for the aerodrome beacon.

C) Runway incursions can occur, because the holding point is located at a great distance from the runway. ✓

D) Increased traffic of gliders and microlights has to be expected.

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is correct concerning VFR transit flights?

A) It is recommended to conduct arrivals at 1 500 ft AMSL and departures at 1 000 ft AMSL.

B) ATC can instruct aircraft to report passing one or more of the waypoints along the route. ✓

C) Transit flights have to maintain an altitude between 1 000 ft and 1 500 ft AMSL; altitudes above and below are reserved for arrivals and departures.

D) VFR transit fights have to follow either the western or the eastern route.

Given the following information: Departure Airport Elevation: 2 500 feet TOC: FL185 ROC: 1 500 ft/min QNH: 995 hPa How long does it take to reach TOC?

A) 12 minutes

B) 10 minutes ✓

C) 11 minutes

D) 9 minutes

Refer to Enroute_ED-4_VFR from GSPRM Training Route Manual 2017. For a planned and authorized landing on a grassland 5 NM east of RODING VOR (RDG, N49°02', E012°32'), a frequency of 120.65 MHz is used to request the latest QNH for the nearby Straubing airfield. Which of the following is the corresponding call sign?

A) München Information ✓

B) Straubing Information

C) Straubing Tower

D) Straubing Radar

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the distance from WALDA 112.80 (WLD, N48º35’ E011º08’) to MUNICH 112.30 (MUN, N48º11’ E011º49’)

A) 67.6 km ✓

B) 39 SM

C) 42 NM

D) 36.5 km

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic course from WALDA 112.80 (WLD, N48º35’ E011º08’) to MUNICH 112.30 (MUN, N48º11’ E011º49’)

A) 309°

B) 311°

C) 129° ✓

D) 131°

Given: True course: 017° W/V: 340/30 TAS: 420 kts Find wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)

A) WCA +2°; GS 416 kts

B) WCA +2°; GS 396 kts

C) WCA -2°; GS 396 kts ✓

D) WCA -2°; GS 426 kts

Given the following information, what magnetic heading must be selected in order to maintain desired track (DTK)? DTK (Tº): 095° TAS: 380 kt Wind: 060°/60 Variation: 5ºE

A) 055°

B) 085° ✓

C) 100°

D) 095°

When reviewing the wind charts in the briefing room, you notice that the average wind in cruise will be 25 kt headwind.Given following data, what will be the flight time to destination? Time to top of climb : 30 min Cruise leg: 740 NM FL380 TAS: 460 kt ISA -10°C Time to from top of descent to landing : 22 minutes

A) 2 h 28 mins

B) 1 h 42 mins

C) 1 h 36 mins

D) 2 h 34 mins ✓

Refer to VFR chart ED(4) from GSPRM 2017. While planning a day VFR flight between Freistadt aerodrome LOLF (N48°31', E014°25') to Dingolfing aerodrome EDPD (N48°40', E012°30'), you need to select visually conspicuous point for the sector West of the E013°45' to record the progress of the flight. Which of the following is the best waypoint?

A) Vilshofen aerodrome (EDMV) at N48°38', E013°12'.

B) The lighted mass at N48°47', E012°53'.

C) The motorway bridge at N48°36', E13°22'. ✓

D) The mast at N48°32', E013°36'.

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which is the distance between obstacle with an height of 4055 ft (N49°09’ , E13°04’) and airport EDPS (N48°41.00' , E13°41.78’)?

A) 56 NM

B) 43 NM

C) 30 NM

D) 37 NM ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching to Ingolstadt Airport ETSI (N48° 42.9' E011° 32.1’) and you have to obtain the distance from a navaids. Which is the navaids that provides the best distance measurement in order to land at ETSI?

A) 108.90 NEU Tacan

B) 112.80 WLD VOR/DME

C) 111.40 IGL Tacan ✓

D) 345 IGL NDB

Refer to Alicante - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the track and distance from reporting point N to NE?

A) 044° - 7 NM

B) 066° - 12 NM

C) 044° - 12 NM

D) 066° - 7 NM ✓

Refer to figure. An Aircraft is planned to fly from Blaubeuren aerodrome (EDMC) (N 48°25’,E009°48’) to Schwenningen at Neckaraerodrom (EDTS) (N 48°04’, E008°34’) following the most direct routing. The route can include any airspace at these two airports, but the remaining portions of the route shall remain clear of any airspaces classes D, E or F and any danger or restricted areas. Which of the following is the most suitable visual turning point for the route?

A) Münsingen Eisberg gliding site (N 48°25’, E009°26’)

B) Albstadt Degerfeld (EDSA) airfield (N 48°15’, E009°04’)

C) The mast south-west of Balingen (N 48°13’, E 008°49’) ✓

D) Hayingen gliding site (N 48°17’, E009°28’)

Refer to figure. What is the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the road A9, proceeding south from MIKE NDB (N48°34’, E 011°36’) to where it crosses the railway line north-east of OBERSCHLEISSHEIM aerodrome (EDNX) (N 48°14’, E011°34’)?

A) 2297 feet

B) 2100 feet

C) 2175 feet ✓

D) 1657 feet

You plan to fly over high terrain of 6 240 ft where a minimum clearance altitude of 2 000 ft is required. An airport nearby at an altitude of 1 240 ft reports a QNH of 1000 hPa and the OAT is ISA -12ºC. What is the lowest usable flight level? (Assume: 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A) FL70

B) FL100

C) FL80

D) FL90 ✓

Given: True course (TC): 017° Wind: 160°/25 kts True airspeed (TAS): 180 kts Find wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS):

A) WCA +5°, GS 161 kts.

B) WCA -5°, GS 161 kts.

C) WCA -5°, GS 199 kts.

D) WCA +5°, GS 199 kts. ✓

Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departing Nantes Atlantique aerodrome (LFRS) under VFR and intending to follow the Loire River towards the northeast can expect which initial departure procedure and altitude?

A) Climb on runway heading to a minimum of 1000 ft before following the Loire River to the northeast.

B) A turn towards reporting point W to avoid the city of Nantes at an altitude of 1000 ft.

C) A turn towards reporting point NE to avoid the city of Nantes at an altitude of 1000 ft. ✓

D) A turn towards reporting point E to avoid the city of Nantes at an altitude of 1500 ft.

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying VFR along the coastline, approaching Alicante Aerodrome (LEAL) from the southwest with plans to enter via the South Route and land at the airport. What is the latest point at which two-way radio contact with Alicante Tower must be established?

A) When crossing the ATZ boundary.

B) At reporting point SW. ✓

C) At reporting point SE.

D) Overhead ALT VOR.

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On a VFR flight in Austria, the departure airfield is RIED KIRCHHEIM (LOLK, N48° 12.8' E13° 20.8') and the destination is FREISTADT (LOLF, N48° 30.9' E14° 24.5'). If the pilot intends to fly directly to the destination, the best navigation aid that could be used is located at...

A) 48º14.2'N, 014º19.3'E

B) 48º25.9'N, 014º07.8'E ✓

C) 48º13.8'N, 014º06.2'E

D) 48º30.9'N, 014º24.6'E

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the highest obstacle or elevation, within a corridor 5 NM either side of track and considering a 5 NM radius around the aerodromes, when flying directly from Griesau (N48°57′, E12°25′) to Arnbruck (N49°7′, E12°59′).

A) 4 777 ft.

B) 3 717 ft.

C) 3 438 ft.

D) 4 055 ft. ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the frequency of MUNICH ATIS?

A) 124.57 MHz

B) 123.12 MHz ✓

C) 120.50 MHz

D) 112.30 MHz

A mountain 6 011 ft AMSL will be crossed. What is the lowest VFR ICAO level the aircraft must fly to obtain a clearance of 2 000 ft? Given: Variation: 10ºW Aircraft's Track: 356º T Aircraft's HDG: 355º M QNH: 990 hPa Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL115

B) FL095 ✓

C) FL090

D) FL085

The minimum grid area altitude applicable for Mengen airport (EDTM, 48°03'N 009°22'E) is…

A) 1819 ft.

B) 4600 ft. ✓

C) 1120 m.

D) 460 ft.

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 A VFR flight from RODING VOR/DME (RDG, N49°02.5' E012°31.5') is on 065º radial of RODING VOR. To receive the latest QNH, the pilot of the aircraft enters a frequency of 123.42 MHz. The name of the suitable frequency is:

A) VILSHOFEN INFO.

B) ARNSCHWANG. ✓

C) STRAUBING ATIS.

D) ARNBRUCK INFO.

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Linz airport (LOWL, 48°14′N, 14°11′E) is within airspace:

A) Class G.

B) Class E.

C) Class D. ✓

D) Class C.

An aircraft is flying VFR using a VOR to navigate. The aircraft is following Radial 128º out from the VOR. Determine the expected Wind Correction Angle (WCA), given: Forecast wind: 080º (T)/35 kt TAS: 155 kt Variation: 15º W

A) -10º

B) -7º ✓

C) +7º

D) +10º

An aircraft is flying at FL180, OAT -11°C, QNH 1003. What is the true altitude?

A) 16 992 ft

B) 18 408 ft ✓

C) 18 000 ft

D) 17 500 ft

Along the route the highest obstacle is 13 421 feet AMSL. If the QNH is 989 hPa, the MT is 311° and the temperature is 10 degrees below ISA, the lowest appropriate VFR flight level that you could choose in order to clear this obstacle by a minimum of 2000 feet is:

A) FL 195

B) FL 185 ✓

C) FL 175

D) FL 165

Refer to figure. Which frequency should you tune to listen to the Automatic Terminal Information Service valid for Nantes/Atlantique airport?

A) 124,425 MHz

B) 115,20 Mhz

C) 126,925 Mhz ✓

D) 124,25 MHz

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Flying from EDPJ LAICHINGEN airport (48°30'N 009°38'E) to EDTM MENGEN airport (48°03'N 009°22'E). What is the magnetic course and the distance?

A) Magnetic course: 200º; Distance: 58 NM.

B) Magnetic course: 200º; Distance: 29 NM. ✓

C) Magnetic course: 020º; Distance: 29 NM.

D) Magnetic course: 020º; Distance: 58 NM.

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Choose the correct statement on a standard day regarding the airspace above Stuttgart Airport (EDDS, N48°41.4', E009°13.3').

A) At 5 000 ft AMSL you would be in class G airspace.

B) At 2 000 ft AMSL you would be in class E airspace.

C) At 4 000 ft AMSL you would be in class D airspace.

D) At 4 000 ft AMSL you would be in class C airspace. ✓

A VFR flight is planned from aerodrome A to aerodrome B on a 085° track. What would be an appropriate Flight Level for this route?

A) FL65

B) FL55 ✓

C) FL60

D) FL50

Refer to figure. (For this question use VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). Which option gives the correct type, identification, and frequency of a navigation aid?

A) VOR, END, 393 kHz (near N48°30ı, E012°30 ı)

B) VOR, LKSR, 123.50 MHz (near N49°00ı, E014°00 ı)

C) VOR/DME, RDG, 114.70 MHz (near N49°00ı, E012°30 ı) ✓

D) VOR, RODING, 114.70 MHz (near N49°00ı, E012°30 ı)

Refer to figure. (For this question use VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). The track between Regensburg Oberhub aerodrome (EDNR) (N49o 09', E012o 05') and Strunkovice aerodrome (LKSR) (N49o 05', E014o 05') is 092o (T). What is the magnetic track?

A) 089o (M) ✓

B) 092o (M)

C) 095o (M)

D) 086o (M)

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which option would be best visual point for a pilot flying VFR in the vicinity of Albstadt Degerfeld aerodrome (EDSA) (N48°15' E009°04')?

A) One of the T junctions of the secondary roads in the area 9 NM east of EDSA.

B) The T junction of the railway near GAMMERTINGEN about 6 NM east of EDSA. ✓

C) The natural high point with elevation 2638 about 8 NM east of EDSA.

D) The village TROCHTELFINGEN about 8 NM east-north-east of EDSA.

Given the following information, calculate the maximum attainable flight time and range. Average fuel flow: 9.6 US gal/h Available fuel: 50 US gal TAS: 100 kt Wind component: 15 kt tailwind The flight time is (1) _ and the range is (2) _.

A) (1) 5 hours 13 minutes; (2) 521 NM

B) (1) 5 hours 13 minutes; (2) 599 NM ✓

C) (1) 5 hours 20 minutes; (2) 521 NM

D) (1) 5 hours 20 minutes: (2) 599 NM

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a VFR flight from Blaubeuren (EDMC) (N48°25' E009°48') to Albstadt (EDSA) (N48°16' E009°04'). The magnetic track for the flight is (1)_ and the distance between the aerodromes is (2)_.

A) (1) 071°; (2) 33 NM

B) (1) 249°; (2) 31 NM ✓

C) (1) 251°; (2) 33 NM

D) (1) 069°; (2) 31 NM

Refer to figure. (For this question use VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). What is the True Course and distance for a direct flight from Scharnstein aerodrome (LOLC) (N47°54' E013°56') to Trieben aerodrome (LOGI) (N47°30' E014°30')?

A) 317º and 33 NM

B) 141º and 32 NM

C) 137º and 33 NM ✓

D) 136º and 63 NM

Refer to figure. (For this question use VFR chart Friedrichshafen (EDNY) 19-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017).You are planning VFR departure from Friedrichshafen aerodrome (EDNY) using runway 24. What is the correct departure procedure to route via point NOVEMBER? After take off, turn right to track…

A) 269°(M), flying NOT above 3000 ft. When crossing the railway line, track 299° (M).

B) 150° (M), max 3000 ft.

C) 315°(M), flying NOT above 3000 ft. ✓

D) 300°(M), flying NOT above 2000 ft

Refer to figure. (For this question use VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). You are planning a route from Albstadt Degerfeld (EDSA) (N48°15' E009°04') to Laupheim (ETHL) (N48°13' E009°55'). What are the callsign and frequency of the Flight Information Services for this route?

A) Langen Information 128.95 MHz and Munchen Information 126.95 MHz. ✓

B) Langen Information 128.95 MHz, Munchen Information 126.95 MHz, and Erbach Information 118.27 MHz.

C) Degerfeld Information 125.10 MHz and Laupheim Information 122.10 MHz.

D) Degerfeld Information 125.10 MHz and Langen Information 128.95 MHZ.

Refer to figure. A flight is planned from REGENSBURG-OBERHUB (EDNR, N49°08.5' E012°04.9') to STRUNKOVICE (LKSR, N49°05.0' E14°04.5'). What is the minimum obstacle clearance altitude which should be maintained during the flight?

A) 7200 ft

B) 5300 ft ✓

C) 5100 ft

D) 3700 ft

Refer to figure. (For this question use the VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). An aircraft is flying a direct course from Straubing aerodrome (EDMS) (N48°54', E012°31') to Sonnen aerodrome (EDPS) (N48°41', E013°42'). What is the highest obstacle within 5 NM off the course?

A) 7200 ft

B) 3111 ft

C) 1540 ft

D) 3754 ft ✓

Given the following information, what is the wind correction angle to be applied? Wind = 060°/60 kts (T) TAS = 380 kts Variation = 5°E Heading = 85° (M)

A) 10°R

B) 10°L

C) 5°L ✓

D) 5°R

Refer to ABERDEEN - Chart 10-IV from Jeppesen. What is the correct frequency to contact with the Scottish Information Service when flying overhead the reporting point "BANCHORY", Southwest of Aberdeen Airport?

A) 135.17

B) 134.10

C) 119.87 ✓

D) 126.25

How do you determine the position of a significant VFR waypoint for insertion into a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) flight plan?

A) By inserting the coordinates of the reference point of an aerodrome and bearing and distance to the significant VFR point.

B) By using the name of a conspicuous city in the vicinity of the route and bearing and distance from there.

C) By using bearing and distance from an existing significant point or insertion of coordinates. ✓

D) By typing in the name of a waypoint on a low altitude route used for IFR flight plans.

Given the following information, what is the Air distance (NAM) covered? TAS: 120 kt Headwind component: 20 kt Ground Distance: 200 NGM

A) 220 NAM

B) 167 NAM

C) 200 NAM

D) 240 NAM ✓

An aircraft is flying under VFR on a track of 168°M. The elevation of the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the intended track of the aircraft is 4200 ft. Given the following information, provided by an aerodrome at 1400 ft elevation, what is the minimum flight level which will give an obstacle clearance 1000 ft? QNH: 1026 hPa Temperature: 12°C below ISA Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL50

B) FL65

C) FL55 ✓

D) FL60

Refer to Alicante Chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is intending to land at Alicante aerodrome (LEAL) and has been cleared to follow the Tabarca Route towards the airport. What is the maximum altitude at which it is permitted to fly?

A) FL75

B) 2000 ft

C) 800 ft

D) 1500 ft ✓

The minimum climb gradient for obstacle clearance is 4%. TAS for the best rate of climb is 230 kt. Given a tailwind of 15 kt, what minimum rate of climb can be achieved?

A) 995 ft/min ✓

B) 935 ft/min

C) 875 ft/min

D) 595 ft/min

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the true track for a flight from FREISTADT (LOLF) in Austria (N48º 30.9' E14º 24.5') to FÜRSTENZELL (EDMF) in Germany (N48º 31.1' E013º 20.8').

A) 088º

B) 091º

C) 268º

D) 271º ✓

Refer to Nantes chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM. An aeroplane is departing from Nantes to conduct VFR flight to the northwest and will cross waypoint (NW). What will be the best visual check point to check the position at waypoint (NW).

A) By looking for the highway junction, which is the only junction in that area. ✓

B) By checking your position with bearing and distance from NTS VOR/DME.

C) By checking your position using GNSS.

D) The lighted mast next to NW.

Refer to figure or to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a VFR flight from Schärding Süben (LOLS) (48°24'11"N, 013°26'53"E) to Pfarrkirchen (EDNP) (48°25'12"N, 012°51'53"E) aerodromes, which of the following statements are true? 1. The cruising altitude should be 5500 ft 2. Your route follows the river "Rott" Westwards 3. The cruising altitude should be 6500 ft 4. You will enter class F airspace during the final approach 5. Your route follows the A3 motorway Northwards 6. You will enter class E airspace during the final approach

A) 1, 2 and 5.

B) 2, 3 and 4. ✓

C) 3, 4 and 5.

D) 3, 4 and 6.

Which of the following statements is correct? The climb gradient is:

A) The same as the angle of climb.

B) Represents the angle of variation.

C) Always larger than the angle of climb. ✓

D) Always smaller than the angle of climb.

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a VFR flight from Albstadt (EDSA) (N48°16' E009°04') to Saulgau (EDTU) (N48°02' E009°31' ) aerodromes. Which Flight Information Service frequency(ies) should you contact with?

A) 125.10 & 123.60

B) Only 126.95

C) Only 128.95 ✓

D) 128.95 & 126.95

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Given the coordinates N49°00, E012°30, what is the frequency of the nearby radio aid?

A) 122.60 MHz

B) 393 kHz

C) 123.50 MHz

D) 114.70 MHz ✓

The following information is for an aircraft in the cruise at 11:50 UTC. Cruise level: FL410 OAT: ISA +10°C Mach No: 0.86 Wind component: -25 kt What will be the Groundspeed?

A) 467 kt

B) 529 kt

C) 479 kt ✓

D) 504 kt

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a VFR flight from Landshut aerodrome (EDML, 48°30.7'N 012°02.0"E) to Deggendorf aerodrome (EDMW, 48°49.8'N 012°52.8"E) following the A92 highway. What is the height of the highest man-made obstacle in the vicinity of your route?

A) 1 766 ft AMSL

B) 1 528 ft AMSL

C) 2 089 ft AMSL ✓

D) 2 094 ft AMSL

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the highest obstacle or elevation, considering a 7 NM radius around the aerodromes, when flying directly from Griesau (N48°57′, E12°25′) to Arnbruck (N49°7′, E12°59′).

A) 4 777 ft ✓

B) 3 717 ft

C) 3 438 ft

D) 4 055 ft

Given the following information, calculate the drift angle: TAS: 179 kt Wind: 330°(M)/25 kt VAR: 20°W Course: 210°(M)

A) 12° Left

B) 18° Left

C) 10° Left

D) 8° Left ✓

Refer to figure or Dubrovnik VFR Chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many VFR Approach/Departure routes are published?

A) 12

B) 1

C) 10

D) 5 ✓

Refer to Dubrovnik VFR Chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many visual procedures are published?

A) 5

B) 1

C) 10 ✓

D) 8

Refer to Alicante (LEAL) VFR Chart 19-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the maximum permissible altitude for an aircraft approaching to the reporting point NE (N38º 21.7', W000º 24.5')?

A) 4 500 feet

B) 2 000 feet ✓

C) FL75

D) 1 500 feet

You are flying a heading of 020° with a TAS of 180 kt. If the wind is from 060° at 30 kt, what will be your drift angle and ground speed?

A) 8°L; 158 kt

B) 7°L; 158 kt ✓

C) 6°L; 155 kt

D) 6°L; 157 kt

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest lighted obstacle in the vicinity of an aircraft's direct route from Arnbruck (EDNB, N49°7′, E12°59′) to Pfarrkirchen (EDNP, 48°25'N, 012°51'E)?

A) 1 528 ft AMSL

B) 2 918 ft AMSL

C) 3 695 ft AMSL

D) 1 965 ft AMSL ✓

Refer to ED-4 VFR chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft on a VFR flight intends to fly overhead aerodrome Straubing (EDMS) (48°54' N, 012°31' E). Given the following information, what is the minimum indicated altitude required to clear the Straubing (EDMS) Class F airspace by 500 ft? Altimeter temperature error with an OAT -7°C at Straubing (EDMS): 240 ft QNH at Straubing (EDMS): 998 hPa Altimeter setting: 998 hPa (Round altitudes and elevations to the nearest 10 ft)

A) 3 690 ft

B) 2 760 ft

C) 3 240 ft

D) 4 290 ft ✓

You want to plan a very accurate VFR route within a controlled airspace. Which of the following landmarks do you consider best suited for insertion into a GNSS flight plan using coordinates?

A) Major cities

B) Motorway or railroad junctions ✓

C) Lakes and rivers

D) Large wooden areas

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. For an aircraft flying VFR from Straubing (EDMS) aerodrome (N48°54.0’ E012°31.1’) to Linz international (LOWL) aerodrome (N48°14.1’ E014°11.3’), what is the best cruising altitude according to ICAO semi-circular rule, VFR checkpoint and ground navigational aid to tune to?

A) 7 000 ft; Power plant at Vilshofen; FRE VOR/DME.

B) 7 500 ft; Highway A3; LNZ VOR/DME. ✓

C) 6 500 ft; Highway A3; FRE VOR/DME.

D) 5 500 ft; Highway A8; LNZ VOR/DME.

Refer to Aberdeen (Dyce) chart 19-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which ATIS frequency(ies) is/are available when still on the ground?

A) 114.300 MHz only

B) 121.850 MHz only

C) 114.300 MHz and 121.850 MHz ✓

D) 121.700 MHz only

Refer to Aberdeen (EGPD) 10-1V chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest obstacle within the Aberdeen Control Area?

A) 1 733 ft

B) 2 052 ft

C) 1 785 ft

D) 2 122 ft ✓

Refer to the image or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the identification and frequency of the ground navigation aid located East off SIERRA waypoint (N48°37', E009°14')?

A) SGD, 112.50 MHz

B) TGO, 112.50 MHz ✓

C) INFO, 123.25 MHz

D) SGD, 115.45 MHz

You want to plan a VFR flight within a controlled airspace using your GNSS flight plan as a back-up navigation method. Which of the following are best suited as significant points for entering into your GNSS flight plan as VFR waypoints using a distance and bearing?

A) Coastlines.

B) Major cities and large towns.

C) Power lines.

D) Airport reference point. ✓

Refer to ALICANTE charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the route via south to north corridor that must be followed by an aircraft passing through Alicante as VFR?

A) SW - S - N - NE1

B) NE1 - ATE - SW

C) NE1 - ALT - SW

D) SW - ALT - NE1 ✓

A pilot is planning a VFR flight from Ajaccio (LFKJ) to Marina Di Campo (LIRJ) aerodrome with alternate aerodrome the Grosseto (LIRS). Given the following information, what is the required time from Marina Di Campo to Grosseto? Cruise distance from LIRJ to LIRS: 24 NM Climb from LIRJ to cruise altitude: 3 minutes Descent to LIRS: 4 minutes Cruise TAS: 150 kt Wind: 050°(T)/20 kt Track from LIRJ to LIRS: 090°(T)

A) 24 minutes

B) 16 minutes

C) 21 minutes

D) 18 minutes ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A VFR flight is planned from Freiburg i. Br. airport (EDTF, N48°01.3’, E007°50.1’) to Offenburg airport (EDTO, N48°27.0’, E007°55.5’) at the lowest safe altitude. Which is the best visual reference landmark for drift and time deviation checks along the intended route?

A) The unlighted tower North of Emmendingen town. ✓

B) The wind farm Southwest of Schweighausen town.

C) The river crossing Herbolzheim town.

D) The wind farm East off Altdorf-Wallburg (EDSW) airport.

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A VFR flight which intends to land at Alicante aerodrome (LEAL) is currently overhead VFR report point SE, following the Tabarca route to intercept the South Route. The airport is busy with IFR departures and arrivals. ATC informs the VFR flight to expect delays.Where is the VFR traffic expected to hold?

A) Published holding overhead ALT/VOR as determined by Alicante APP.

B) Overhead VFR reporting point S as established by Alicante TWR. ✓

C) Published holding overhead ATE/VOR as determined by Alicante APP.

D) Overhead VFR reporting point SE prior to entering the ATZ.

What is the best landmark for a pilot flying a VFR flight to get distance and bearing?

A) A large forest.

B) A large lake.

C) An airport runway. ✓

D) Large cities and towns.

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the highest obstacle or elevation, within a 10 NM wide corridor and considering a 5 NM radius around the aerodromes, when flying directly from Griesau (N48°57′ E12°25′) to Arnbruck (N49°7′ E12°59′).

A) 4777 ft.

B) 3717 ft.

C) 3438 ft.

D) 4055 ft. ✓

What is the required horizontal distance, measured from an airfield at sea level, to initiate a descent from an altitude of 17 000 ft and reach an altitude of 2 000 ft while being 10 NM away from the airfield? The descent rate is set at 1 500 ft/min, and the ground speed is 180 kt.

A) 50 NM

B) 40 NM ✓

C) 30 NM

D) 60 NM

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You intend to fly a VFR flight from Straubing EDMS (N48°54.0’, E012°31.1’) to Elsenthal-Grafenau EDNF (N48°49.4’, E013°22.0’). What is the magnetic track and distance for a direct routing?

A) 101° and 43 NM

B) 090° and 32 NM

C) 095° and 34 NM ✓

D) 098° and 34 NM

How can we use/insert a motorway intersection as a GNSS waypoint?

A) You can choose the motorway intersection as a waypoint since all motorway intersections are already GNSS waypoints.

B) We need to change our flight plan to IFR.

C) GNSS waypoints are just for IFR flights.

D) Add a motorway as a user waypoint using a bearing and distance from a GNSS waypoint. ✓

Refer to figure. You are about to take a VFR flight in Summer with no serviceable radio aids on board your aircraft. The flight is likely to occur in haze in the late afternoon, with the Sun deteriorating visibility even more. Which route should you plan to take?

A) Route 4 via the big city of Regensburg.

B) Route 3 via the tall mast.

C) Route 2 via the highway then the river. ✓

D) Route 1 via "RDG" VOR.

Refer to figure or to chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017 . As you approach Linz Airport from the North, what is the best visual aid to use just before entering the Linz TMA?

A) High ground (2 392 ft)

B) Lighted Mast (3 547 ft) ✓

C) Friestadt VOR

D) LOLE airport

Refer to figure or to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a flight from Niederoblarn aerodrome (LOGO) (47°29′N, 014°00'E) to Leoben Timmersdorf aerodrome (LOGT) (47°23'N, 014°58'E). Determine the approximate distance between the LOGO and LOGT aerodromes:

A) 73 NM

B) 45 NM

C) 39 NM ✓

D) 28 NM

Please refer to figure or to CAP 697, Figure 2.2, Table 2.2.1. Determine the aircraft's drift on a course of 127°(M), given: Level FL70; Temperature: ISA+10°C; Power set; 2500 RPM, full throttle; Wind: 110°(T)/50 kt; Variation: 15°E

A) 5° right

B) 9° right ✓

C) 7° right

D) 12° right

An aircraft is being flown in the cruise. Determine the expected drift, given: Course: 210°(M) TAS: 179 kt Forecast wind: 330°/50 kt Variation: 20°W

A) 8° left

B) 10° left ✓

C) 14° left

D) 16° left

Refer to figure or Alicante (LEAL) charts 19-1 and 19-3 from the VFR section of the GSPRM Jeppesen. You are flying northbound along the coast and you have to transit the Alicante Air Traffic Zone (ATZ), which of the following is the correct route when crossing the ATZ?

A) Follow the coast line across the ATZ and call then crossing the runway centreline.

B) Join the South Corridor at Point SW to VOR ALT, then to Point N, and follow the North Route to Point NE.

C) Join the South Corridor at Point SW to VOR ALT, then follow the North Corridor to Point NE1. ✓

D) Follow the coast line to Point SW, then to Point N, then to Point NE1.

Refer to figure. An aircraft is at 9 000 feet at position (47º30'N, 014º00'E) and flies VFR towards LOXA Aigen Im Ennstal airport to land. What action must be made by the Pilot when approaching LOXA airport?

A) Immediately descend to 3000 feet and contact 130.00.

B) Contact Wien Information 124.40 for clearance.

C) Fly Inbound TRAUTENFELS maintaing the same altitude.

D) Contact 118.000 over Trautenfels reporting point. ✓

When reviewing the wind charts in the briefing room, you notice that the average wind in cruise will be 25 kt tailwind. Given following data, what will be the flight time to destination? Time to top of climb: 30 min Cruise leg: 740 NM FL380 TAS: 460 kt ISA: -10°C Time to from top of descent to landing: 22 minutes

A) 2 h 24 mins ✓

B) 1 h 42 mins

C) 1 h 36 mins

D) 2 h 34 mins

Refer to figure. You will be approaching Munich via HOTEL 1 point, which frequency should you contact to obtain clearance to enter the control zone?

A) Munich Information, frequency 120.65 MHz.

B) Munich Information, frequency 126.95 MHz.

C) Munich Tower, frequency 118.70 MHz.

D) Munich Tower, frequency 120.50 MHz. ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. For an aircraft flying VFR from Straubing (EDMS) aerodrome (N48°54.0’ E012°31.1’) to Linz International (LOWL) aerodrome (N48°14.1’ E014°11.3’), what is the ideal cruise level between the following options?

A) FL105

B) FL095 ✓

C) FL090

D) FL070

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying abeam Linz Airport (LOWL; N48°15’ E014°11’) and want to know the current weather. What frequency should you use?

A) 118.80 MHz

B) 116.60 MHz

C) 128.12 MHz ✓

D) 129.62 MHz

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many visual procedures are published?

A) 5 ✓

B) 4

C) 3

D) None

Can you insert a road junction or railroad as a waypoint for the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) flight plan?

A) No, GNSS waypoints cannot be created.

B) Yes, by inserting the coordinates of the airport reference point, then bearing and distance from it.

C) Yes, but you must request permission from the national authority.

D) Yes, by inserting the coordinates or referencing to an existing GNSS point. ✓

Refer to figure. You are flying local at EDNA Airport and the radio station is unserviceable there. You need to know the height of the cloud base, visibility, and runway in use at Munich. What is the best frequency to use for this information?

A) Munich Weather Radar, 121.20

B) Munich Info, 120.65

C) Erding Tower, 122.10

D) Munich ATIS, 123.12 ✓

An aircraft is climbing from 3000 ft to 8000 ft on a 3° path at an average GS of 210 kt. The altitude of 8000 ft will be reached in (1) _ and the ground distance covered will be (2) _.

A) (1) 7 minutes and 56 seconds; (2) 27.8 NM

B) (1) 12 minutes and 42 seconds; (2) 44.5 NM

C) (1) 5 minutes and 14 seconds; (2) 18.3 NM

D) (1) 4 minutes and 46 seconds; (2) 16.7 NM ✓

Refer to figure. When flying a magnetic heading of 210°, the deviation is (1) _ and the compass heading you'll have to fly is (2) _.

A) (1) +1°; (2) 210°

B) (1) 1°W; (2) 211°

C) (1) 1°E; (2) 209° ✓

D) (1) -1°; (2) 209°

Refer to figure. (For this question use the VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). An aircraft is flying a direct course from Deggendorf aerodrome (EDMW) (N48°44' E012°53') to Sonnen aerodrome (EDPS) (N48°41' E013°42'). What is the highest obstacle within 5 NM off the course?

A) 7200 ft

B) 3111 ft

C) 1540 ft

D) 3754 ft ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On a VFR flight, what would be the maximum altitude arriving at NE1?

A) FL45

B) FL75 ✓

C) 1500 ft

D) 2000 ft

Refer to figure. What type of airport is Vilshofen (N48°38.1' E013°11.7') and what kind of obstacle is located to the north-west of the airport?

A) Military, unlighted obstacle

B) Mixed military-civil, lighted obstacle

C) Civil, lighted obstacle ✓

D) Mixed military-civil, unlighted obstacle

Refer to figure. While flying VFR towards Munich, you intend to hold in the vicinity of Class C airspace (northwest). Which radio aid is most useful for maintaining a holding pattern in this situation?

A) VOR/DME, WLD ✓

B) VOR, GND

C) VOR/DME, GND

D) VOR, WLD

Refer to figure. An aircraft is doing some aerial work while flying VFR in the vicinity of LOGI (N47°29.7' E014°29.9'). Which flight level is most suitable for the activity? Temperature = ISA -15°C QNH = 1018 hPa

A) FL115 ✓

B) FL105

C) FL110

D) FL120

Refer to figure. You are flying along the red route shown on figure. What is the highest obstacle within 5 NM on each side of this route?

A) The natural high ground with 2838 feet. ✓

B) The mountain peak of 2648 ft.

C) The man-made obstacle with 2838 feet.

D) The wind turbine with 2648 ft.

Refer to figure. An aircraft is climbing straight ahead from an aerodrome EDST (N48°37.9' E009°25.8'). How would you determine the distance of the aircraft from the airport during the climb?

A) Calculating based on TAS and wind corrections

B) Using radar vectors from ATC

C) Estimating distance based on climb rate and time ✓

D) Using DME from the departure airport

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching Alicante from the southwest to follow the south route. Which path should be followed in case of a radio communication failure?

A) west of the south corridor/route

B) along the Tabarca Route

C) along the North Corridor

D) east of the south corridor/route ✓

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. While flying north to south, you are assessing which visual waypoint would be best for daytime navigation and also easily recognizable if visibility deteriorates. Which of the following waypoints would you consider?

A) An airport, as airports are large and can be easily identified in a wooded area.

B) A factory is adjacent to the river.

C) A river next to the town, is notable for a recognizable curve.

D) A highly illuminated mast. ✓

You are flying VFR to an aerodrome which only has GNSS procedures available. You check the availability of the satellites before departure. From what time must you ensure that you have full satellite availability so that you can proceed with your flight?

A) 1 hour before your flight (12:00)

B) At the planned IAF (14:50) ✓

C) Before the planned ToD (14:40)

D) Before taking-off (13:00)

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the magnetic track from THALMÄSSING-WAIZENHOFEN (EDPW, N49°03.85' E011°12.57') to RODING VOR (RDG, N49°02.5' E012°31.5')?

A) 98°

B) 95°

C) 92°

D) 89° ✓

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following options is the best visual waypoint when flying VFR from Arnbruck (EDNB, N49°7′ E12°59′) to an airport located to the southwest?

A) Distinctive landmarks or geographical features ✓

B) Mountain range

C) Major highway

D) A large body of water

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is north of Antersberg at N48°00' E12°00' when ATC requests the radial and distance from MUN VOR/DME (N48°10.8' E11°49.0'). Which of the following is correct?

A) 325°; 15 NM

B) 322°; 15 NM

C) 145°; 13 NM

D) 142°; 13 NM ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from EDSZ ROTTWEIL ZEPFENHAN (48°12’N 008°44’E) to EDTM MENGEN airport (48°03’N 009°22’E). Determine the highest obstacle within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline.

A) 2920 ft

B) 3760 ft ✓

C) 2605 ft

D) 3331 ft

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying VFR in a light aircraft and are about to cross the river Donau from the North in a Southernly direction. The visibility is reduced due to fog. Which point should you use to determine your position?

A) The town of Osterhofen

B) The powerplant with 1593ft elevation because of the size of the facility and its location in the turn of the river ✓

C) The lighted tower with 1965ft elevation because it is lit

D) EDMV Aerodrome because the runway areas are large and easy to identify

Refer to figure. Using the Aberdeen VFR chart, what radial and distance from ADN VOR/DME should be used for visual reference at Insch?

A) 290 degrees / 15 NM

B) 260 degrees / 10 NM

C) 240 degrees / 9 NM

D) 284 degrees / 11 NM ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching Alicante from the north corridor. Which path should be followed in case of a radio communication failure?

A) west of the south corridor/route

B) along the Tabarca Route

C) along the North Corridor

D) east of the south corridor/route ✓

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying over Haigerloch (N48°22′, E008°48′) at FL95 and would like to cross over reporting point Lima (N48°37', E009°9') at 3500 ft. Given the following information, what should your rate of descent be? Wind at FL95: 270°/35 kt Wind at 3500 ft: 240°/15 kt TAS: 146 kt

A) 570 fpm

B) 630 fpm

C) 750 fpm

D) 860 fpm ✓

Given the following METAR, an aircraft intends to take-off from Runway 23, with magnetic variation of 10°E. What is the wind direction relative to the aircraft's take-off direction? SA1430 21019KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024 =

A) 10° from left

B) 30° from left ✓

C) 30° from right

D) 40° from left

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the magnetic track and distance between Sulz VOR (N48°23' E008°39') and Laupheim (ETHL, N48°13' E009°55').

A) 094°(M), 52 NM

B) 098°(M), 72 NM

C) 102°(M), 72 NM

D) 098°(M), 52 NM ✓

Refer to VFR chart Friedrichshafen (EDNY) 19-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When approaching Friedrichshafen via NOVEMBER, when must you make contact with the tower?

A) 10 NM before reaching NOVEMBER

B) Immediately after passing the previous waypoint

C) Upon crossing NOVEMBER

D) 5 minutes before reaching NOVEMBER ✓

An aircraft is flying under VFR on a track of 168°(M). The highest obstacle within 5 NM of the intended track of the aircraft is 4290 ft elevation. Given the following information, provided by an aerodrome at 1400 ft elevation, what is the minimum flight level to give 1000 ft obstacle clearance? QNH: 1026 hPa Temperatare: ISA -12°C Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL60

B) FL50

C) FL55 ✓

D) FL65

Refer to Aberdeen (EGPD) 10-1V chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching EGPD from the west at Insch via the entry point Inverurie Lane. How should you proceed?

A) Follow the railway on your left and maintain 2500 ft.

B) Maintain 3000 ft and fly direct to the airfield.

C) Do not fly above 2000 ft and follow the railway with it on your left. ✓

D) Fly above 2000 ft and maintain the railway on your right.

Refer to figure. An aircraft is flying a 195 NM leg with a TAS of 120 knots. The pilot wishes to choose a cruising level to optimise fuel consumption. At 2000 ft, the aircraft has a manifold pressure of 18' and encounters a 20-knot headwind. At 4000 ft, the aircraft requires a manifold pressure of 22' and experiences a 10-knot tailwind. What is the change in fuel consumption when flying at 4000 ft compared to 2000 ft?

A) Decrease by 5.5 USG

B) Decrease by 3.3 USG

C) Increase by 5.5 USG ✓

D) Increase by 3.3 USG

Refer to VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A pilot departs on a VFR flight out of Mengen airport (EDTM, 48°03’N 009°22’E) and climbs out on the runway heading of 259° magnetic and levels off at the top of climb of FL85. Using the following information, which of the statements is correct regarding the aircraft's location after levelling off? Rate of Climb: 740 feet/min True Wind: 240°/ 20 kt Planned TAS: 140 kt Conditions: ISA

A) EDTS is on a track of 293 deg true from your position

B) EDTD is approximately 12 NM in front of you

C) EDSN is approximately 1.5 NM to your left ✓

D) EDTM is 22.5 NM behind you

Your true track is 256°, and the variation is 5°W. What is your magnetic track?

A) 266°

B) 261° ✓

C) 256°

D) 251°

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying a direct course from Deggendorf aerodrome (EDMW) (N48°44' E012°53') to Sonnen aerodrome (EDPS) (N48°41' E013°42'). What is the possible flight level for a VFR flight from Deggendorf (EDMW) or Straubing (EDMS) to Sonnen?

A) FL80

B) FL90

C) FL85

D) FL95 ✓

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the magnetic track and distance from Schönberg (EDPK) (48°02'52"N 012°30'02"E) to Oberpfaffenhofen (EDMO) (48°04'53"N 011°16'59"E)?

A) 276°M / 55 NM

B) 273°M / 53 NM

C) 270°M / 49 NM ✓

D) 270°M / 47 NM

You plan to fly over high terrain of 6428 ft, where a minimum clearance altitude of 2000 ft is required. An airport nearby at an altitude of 1425 ft reports a QNH of 1000 hPa and the OAT is ISA -12°C. What is the lowest usable flight level? (Assume: 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A) FL70

B) FL80

C) FL90

D) FL100 ✓

A VFR flight is planned from aerodrome A to aerodrome B on a 085° track. What would be an appropriate Flight Level for this route?

A) FL65

B) FL80

C) FL95 ✓

D) FL50

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The magnetic variation at LOLS (N48°24' E013°27) is (1) ___, which must be (2) _ from the measured track to obtain the (3) ___ track.

A) (1) 003°E; (2) Subtracted; (3) Magnetic ✓

B) (1) 003°E; (2) Added; (3) Magnetic

C) (1) 005°E; (2) Subtracted; (3) True

D) (1) 003°E; (2) Subtracted; (3) True

Refer to figures or Aberdeen (EGPD) 10-1V and 10-1VA charts from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. While flying with the railway line on the left, the aircraft must remain…

A) Not below 2000 ft QNH except in an emergency.

B) At 2000 ft QNH to avoid instrument traffic.

C) At or below 2000 ft above ground level (AGL).

D) At or below 2000 ft on Aberdeen QNH. ✓

The following information is for an aircraft in the cruise at 11:50 UTC: Cruise level: FL390 OAT: ISA -10°C Mach No: 0.84 Wind component: -25 kt What is the TAS?

A) 460 kt

B) 470 kt ✓

C) 445 kt

D) 495 kt

Refer to figure or VFR chart Friedrichshafen (EDNY) 19-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning VFR departure from Friedrichshafen aerodrome (EDNY) using runway 24. What is the correct departure procedure to route via point SIERRA? After take off, turn left to track…

A) Contact Munich Information after take off for directions.

B) Follow the Autobahn South.

C) 135°(M), MAX 3000 ft. ✓

D) 150°(M), MAX 3000 ft.

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the magnetic track and distance from FÜRSTENZELL aerodrome (EDMF, N48°31.1' E013°20.8') to Metten helipad (N48°51.56' E012°56.1')?

A) 324°M / 26 NM

B) 320°M / 26 NM ✓

C) 321°M / 39 NM

D) 141°M / 39 NM

Refer to figure or Dubrovnik VFR Chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. How many visual approach/departure procedures are published?

A) 11 at 2000 ft for arrivals and 1500 ft for departures.

B) 10 at 1500 ft for arrivals and 1000 ft for departures.

C) 5 bidirectional at 1500 ft. ✓

D) 6 bidirectional at 1500 ft.

Given the following information, determine the correct ICAO VFR cruise level: Track: 185°(T) Variation: 5°W

A) FL50

B) FL55

C) FL60

D) FL65 ✓

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance from FÜRSTENZELL aerodrome (EDMF, N48°31.1' E013°20.8') to Metten helipad (N48°51.56' E012°56.1')?

A) 12 NM

B) 52 NM

C) 26 NM ✓

D) 39 NM

Refer to figure. A pilot is preparing a flight from Vilshofen (EDMV, N48°38.1′ E13°11.7′) to Regensburg (EDNR, N49°08.5' E012°04.9'), with no access to radio navigation aids. Weather conditions are suboptimal, hazy visibility is reported along the planned path, and the sun is positioned low, potentially impairing forward vision. Given these limitations, what would be the most appropriate routing choice?

A) A straight line from EDMV to the lighted tower (height 1848 ft) just east of Pfaffenberg, then straight to EDNR.

B) Straight to EDNB and the straight to EDNR.

C) Following the A3 highway past Straubing to Regensburg city, just clipping the edge of the class F airspace, turning right up the A93 to EDNR. ✓

D) Straight from EDMV to Roding VOR, then to EDNR.

Refer to figure. You are flying at 8500 ft over position N54°30' E12°30', maintaining a true track of 180° toward the München airspace boundary located at N48°30' E12°30'. Under standard ISA conditions, with a ground speed of 120 kt and a descent rate of 400 ft/min, how far in advance of the point N48°30' E12°30' must you begin your descent in order to reach the base level of the München airspace upon arrival?

A) 40 NM

B) 10 NM ✓

C) 20 NM

D) 30 NM

An aircraft is flying with a TAS of 90 kt and a GS of 80 kt on a track of 330°. The initial wind is from 340° at 15 kt. The wind then shifts to 190° at 10 kt. Based on this change in wind, complete the following statements: Your groundspeed is going to _. You will need to apply a wind correction to the _.

A) decrease; left.

B) increase; right.

C) decrease; right.

D) increase; left. ✓

A pilot is operating a commercial air transport flight in accordance with EU Regulations (Part-CAT) in a twin-engine Performance Class B aeroplane. It is a sightseeing flight under VFR during the day. Considering the performance requirements for take-off and departure, which of the following options is correct regarding the horizontal extent of the flight path accountability area for this flight? The obstacle clearance accountability area...

A) commences at the end of the TODA and consists of a 90 m wide corridor along the flight path until the aeroplane reaches 50 ft above any obstacle.

B) commences at the assumed engine failure height and will gradually widen as the distance along the flight path increases.

C) is effectively substituted by ensuring the weather conditions during operation are sufficient to visually navigate and avoid obstacles. ✓

D) is at least 60 m wide from the end of the TORA, gradually extending to a maximum 300 m width along the planned flight path.

Refer to figure or VFR Chart ED-4 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying a VFR route from Laupheim aerodrome (ETHL) (48°13′N 9°54′E) to Bopfingen aerodrome (EDNQ) (N48°50' E10°20'). What is the correct Flight Information Region (FIR) (1) _ and frequency(ies) (2) _ you would use along this route?

A) (1) München Information; (2) 128.95.

B) (1) München and Langen Information; (2) 128.95 and 120.65.

C) (1) Langen Information; (2) 120.65.

D) (1) München Information; (2) 120.65 and 126.95. ✓

Refer to figure. What is the minimum altitude over the Quiet-zone?

A) 3500 ft

B) 3500 m

C) 1500 ft ✓

D) 1500 m

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance between aerodromes Niederöblarn (LOGO) (47°29'N 014°00'E) and Gmunden Laakirchen (LOLU) (47°57'N 013°52'E)?

A) 35 NM

B) 32 NM

C) 29 NM ✓

D) 25 NM

Refer to figure or VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The magnetic variation at LOLS (N48°24' E013°27) is (1) ___, which must be (2) _ from the magnetic track to obtain the (3) ___ track.

A) (1) 003°E; (2) Added; (3) True ✓

B) (1) 003°E; (2) Added; (3) Magnetic

C) (1) 005°E; (2) Subtracted; (3) True

D) (1) 003°E; (2) Subtracted; (3) True

When reviewing the wind charts in the briefing room, you notice that the average wind in cruise will be 25 kt headwind. Given following data, what will be the flight time to destination? Time to top of climb: 30 min Cruise leg: 740 NAM FL380 TAS: 460 kt ISA: -10°C Time to from top of descent to landing: 22 minutes

A) 2 h 28 mins ✓

B) 1 h 42 mins

C) 1 h 36 mins

D) 2 h 34 mins

Refer to figure or Nantes chart 19-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM. An aircraft is departing from LFRS (Nantes Atlantique) to conduct a VFR flight to the northwest. The ATC clears the aircraft to leave the control zone (CTR) via waypoint NW. Why is waypoint NW a good feature for visual identification?

A) NW is positioned on the junction of two motorways, which is made unique by being the only such junction in that immediate area. ✓

B) NW is positioned on a 378 ft-tall lighted mast, which makes it easy to identify because of its large vertical extent and the illumination.

C) NW can be identified by using the NTS VOR/DME; it is positioned on the radial 334° at 6.5 NM.

D) NW can be identified by inserting N47°15.4' W001°41.1' into the GNSS receiver for visual identification on the moving map.

Given the following information, calculate the ground distance. True airspeed: 180 kt Wind component: +20 kt Air distance: 90 NAM

A) 105 NGM

B) 111 NGM

C) 80 NGM

D) 100 NGM ✓

What is the primary reason for the pre-flight study of the anticipated SID and STAR? To ensure that..

A) the most economical routes are flown.

B) the aircraft is guided along the correct lateral and vertical profiles. ✓

C) noise abatement procedures are complied with.

D) pre-planned in-flight deviations from the published procedures can be accommodated.

Mark the altitude which is defined as the lowest altitude between radio navigation fixes that assures acceptable navigation signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

A) Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA).

B) Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA).

C) Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA).

D) Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA). ✓

On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to…

A) 10 NM

B) 25 NM ✓

C) 15 NM

D) 20 NM

An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the:

A) maximum authorised altitude (MAA).

B) base of the airway (AGL).

C) minimum holding altitude (MHA).

D) minimum enroute altitude (MEA). ✓

An airway is marked FL80 1500a. This indicates that:

A) 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).

B) the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.

C) the airway extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL80.

D) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL80. ✓

Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with:

A) true course.

B) true headings.

C) magnetic headings.

D) magnetic course. ✓

An aircraft is flying over terrain of up to 2000 ft elevation. The Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) over this terrain provides, in the holding area, a minimum obstacle clearance of how many metres?

A) 900 m

B) 450 m

C) 300 m ✓

D) 600 m

For Commercial Air Transport operations over a mountainous area where the terrain elevation is up to 7000 ft, what is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed by MOCA?

A) 600 m ✓

B) 300 m

C) 450 m

D) 900 m

(For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004). Assuming the following data below, what is the time needed to carry out such a flight? Ground distance to be covered: 2000 NM Cruise flight level: FL330 Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) Head wind component: 30 kt Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg Temperature: ISA CG: 37% Total anti-ice: ON Pack flow: HI

A) 4 hours 10 minutes

B) 4 hours 26 minutes

C) 5 hours 02 minutes

D) 4 hours 43 minutes ✓

Given the following information, what is the Ground Speed of the aircraft? TAS: 250 kt True Heading: 090º Wind: 030º(T)/50 kt

A) 219 kt

B) 239 kt

C) 278 kt

D) 229 kt ✓

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given: Twin jet aeroplane FL330 Long range cruise Outside air temperature : -63°C Gross mass: 50 500 kg Find: True airspeed (TAS)

A) 433 kt

B) 431 kt

C) 420 kt ✓

D) 418 kt

You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is:

A) 90 ✓

B) 75

C) 80

D) 70

Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:

A) FL300

B) FL320

C) FL290

D) FL310 ✓

Refer to figure. Calculate the Wind Correction Angle WCA and Ground Speed GS for the sector RDG VOR to EDPW. The WCA is

A) 8° Left, and GS is 144 kt.

B) 8° Right, and GS is 144 kt.

C) 8° Right, and GS is 127 kt. ✓

D) 8° Left, and GS is 127 kt.

The Minimum Off-Route Altitude MORA according to the Jeppesen formula provides known obstruction clearance within which distance from the route centreline?

A) 5 NM

B) 15 NM

C) 10 NM ✓

D) 20 NM

(For this question use annex 033-032 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2). Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Gross mass: 50000 kg FL 280 ISA Deviation: -10° C Cruise procedure Mach 0.74 Determine the TAS.

A) 427 kt

B) 417 kt

C) 440 kt

D) 430 kt ✓

Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for an IFR flight in accordance with the semi circular height rules on a course of 180°M is

A) FL105

B) FL100 ✓

C) FL95

D) FL90

Refer to figure. Given a variation of 3°E and the information as indicated in the navigation plan, calculate the Wind Correction Angle WCA and Ground Speed GS, on the route from CDA to the Top Of Descent TOD The WCA is:

A) 5° Right, and GS is 368 kt.

B) 4° Right, and GS is 361 kt. ✓

C) 5° Left, and GS is 368 kt.

D) 4° Left, and GS is 361 kt.

An IFR flight is planned across terrain where the maximum elevation is 5880 ft. The forecast temperature is ISA -18° C, and the Minimum Obstacle Clearance required is 2000 ft. A nearby aerodrome elevation 2075 ft reports a QNH of 1003 hPa. What is the minimum flight level that could be planned for the cruise?

A) FL100

B) FL90 ✓

C) FL80

D) FL85

Given the following information, calculate the minimum flight level for an IFR flight that is planned outside airways: Course: 235°M MSA: 7800 ft QNH: 995 hPa Temperature: ISA

A) FL80

B) FL100 ✓

C) FL90

D) FL85

Refer to figure. Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass: 49700 kg FL 280 W/V: 280°/40 kt Average True Course: 320° Procedure for descent 0.74 M/250 KIAS Determine the ground distance from the top of descent to London elevation 80 ft.

A) 65 NM

B) 97 NM

C) 76 NM ✓

D) 87 NM

ICAO Doc 8168 states that specific altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least 300 m (1000 ft) obstacle clearance within 46 km (25 NM) of the navigation aid, initial approach fix or intermediate fix associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome. Which of the following abbreviations is used for such altitudes?

A) MOCA

B) MSA ✓

C) MEA

D) MCA

Refer to figure or CAP697 file 4.5.1. (-6º to -15º). Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-Off Mass TOM: 52000 kg Airport elevation: 387 ft FL 280 W/V: 280°/40 kt ISA Deviation: -10° C Average True Course: 340° Find: Fuel to the top of climb TOC

A) 1500 lb

B) 1000 lb

C) 1100 kg

D) 1000 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10° C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL280 Find: Still air distance NAM and ground distance NM for the enroute climb 280/.74

A) 62 NAM, 71 NM

B) 62 NAM, 59 NM ✓

C) 59 NAM, 62 NM

D) 71 NAM, 67 NM

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given: Long range cruise Outside air temperature OAT: -45° C in FL350 Mass at the beginning of the leg: 40 000 kg Mass at the end of the leg: 39 000 kg Find the true airspeed TAS and the distance NAM for the twin engine aeroplane.

A) TAS 433 kts, 227 NAM ✓

B) TAS 431 kts, 1 163 NAM

C) TAS 423 kts, 227 NAM

D) TAS 423 kts, 936 NAM

According to ICAO, what is the lowest altitude that may be used which provides a minimum clearance of 300 m 1000 ft above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on a radio aid to navigation?

A) MSA. ✓

B) MEA.

C) MOCA.

D) MCA.

The minimum safe altitude is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by the reference meteorological station at an elevation of 4000 ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown?

A) 8850 ft.

B) 9350 ft.

C) 8550 ft.

D) 9150 ft. ✓

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 and Figure 4.5.1). Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-Off Mass TOM: 52000 kg Airport elevation: 387 ft FL 280 W/V: 280°/40 kt ISA Deviation: -10° C Average True Course: 340° Find: Ground distance to the top of climb TOC

A) 47 NM

B) 56 NM

C) 53 NM

D) 50 NM ✓

On a given flight path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels FL, each associated with a mandatory flight Mach number M. The flight conditions, static air temperature SAT and headwind component HWC are given below: FL 370: M = 0.80, SAT = -60° C, HWC = 15 kt FL 330: M = 0.78, SAT = -60° C, HWC= 5 kt FL 290: M = 0.80, SAT = -55° C, HWC = 15 kt FL 270: M = 0.76, SAT = -43° C, HWC = 0 The Flight Level allowing the highest Ground Speed is..

A) FL370.

B) FL290.

C) FL270. ✓

D) FL330.

An aircraft, following a 215º true track at variation 3°W, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea level, is 1035 hPa and the temperature is ISA -15ºC, the minimum flight level will be…

A) 150.

B) 140. ✓

C) 130.

D) 120.

(For this question use annex 033-031 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4). Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass: 49700 kg FL 280 W/V: 280°/40 kt Average True Course: 320° Procedure for descent 0.74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).

A) 17 min

B) 8 min

C) 10 min

D) 19 min ✓

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg Initial FL280 average temperature during climb ISA -10° C average head wind component 18 kt Find:Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74

A) 13 min ✓

B) 15 min

C) 11 min

D) 14 min

An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that

A) the minimum enroute altitude MEA is 3500 ft.

B) the airway base is 3500 ft MSL.

C) the minimum obstacle clearance altitude MOCA is 3500 ft. ✓

D) the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft 3500 ft MSL.

For an IFR flight to Charleroi CRL the planned alternate is Liege LGG. Given the following information, what is the total time for the direct overhead overhead flight from the destination to the alternate? Track from CRL to LGG: 075°T Distance from CRL to LGG: 39 NM Wind: 110°T/20 kt TAS: 280 kt

A) 17 minutes

B) 9 minutes ✓

C) 5 minutes

D) 8 minutes

An IFR flight is planned across terrain where the maximum elevation is 4385 ft. The forecast temperature is ISA +12° C, and the Minimum Obstacle Clearance required is 1500 ft. A nearby aerodrome elevation 875 ft reports a QNH of 1025 hPa. What is the minimum flight level that could be planned for the cruise?

A) FL80

B) FL40

C) FL50

D) FL60 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 10-2D, 13-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying on airway A-34 to Alicante / Spain (LEAL) and arrives at MAGAL for an approach on runway 28. What is the distance from the IAF to ALICANTE VOR?

A) 45.4 NM

B) 26 NM

C) 21.1 NM ✓

D) 19.9 NM

Refer to chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A section of a flight is carried out from SUMBURGH (SUM) to ABERDEEN (ADN) along airway Y905. What is the lowest continuous FL you can use?

A) FL190

B) FL50

C) FL80

D) FL110 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 11-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the elevation of the highest obstacle - natural or man-made on the chart?

A) 4252 ft ✓

B) 7000 ft

C) 625 ft

D) 3718 ft

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-3C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing on runway 28. All navaids are serviceable. Which of the following refers to the corresponding routing?

A) Minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 3 100 ft, maximum speed during the turn to radial 246 ALT is 220 kt, MSA between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5 900 ft. ✓

B) Minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 5 900 ft, maximum speed during the turn to radial 246 ALT is 220 kt, MSA between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5 900 ft, minimum altitude at SUMMO is 3 000 ft

C) Minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 5 900 ft, minimum speed during the turn to radial 246 ALT is 220 kt, MSA between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 3 100 ft, minimum altitude at SUMMO is 5 000 ft.

D) Maximum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 3 100 ft, maximum speed during the turn to radial 246 ALT is 220 kt, MSA between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5 900 ft, maximum altitude at SUMMO is 5 000 ft.

Refer to chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the distance and magnetic track of the waypoint TIPIL by flying out of TRENT VOR/DME (TNT): (Note: when using the original chart from GSPRM both locations can be found in chart section 7 C)

A) 341° / 7 NM ✓

B) 329° / 13 NM

C) 161° / 23 NM

D) 340° / 5 NM

Refer to chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A section of a flight is carried out from SUMBURGH (SUM) to ABERDEEN (ADN) along airway Y905. Choose the applicable IFR flight level between those points.

A) FL120 ✓

B) FL190

C) FL80

D) FL110

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-2G from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which approach is possible on Runway 28?

A) Continuous Descent Arrival via CALLES and VILNA

B) Continuous Descent Arrival via VALENCIA and VILNA

C) Continuous Descent Arrival via CALLES, KOVAM and BESOR ✓

D) Continuous Descent Arrival via CALLES, KOVAM and VILNA

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 13-1, 13-2, 11-1, 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You intend to approach Alicante but your ADF is unserviceable. Which of the following approaches are you allowed to use?

A) ILS Z, ILS Y, VOR Z, VOR Y since none of them use NDBs

B) VOR Z only

C) ILS Z and ILS Y

D) VOR Y and VOR Z ✓

Refer to Amsterdam- chart 11-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following approach lights are provided for Amsterdam ILS 06 approach?

A) A runway lead in lightning system (RLLS).

B) A high intensity approach light system. ✓

C) GA light has a length of 2000 ft.

D) PAPI lights.

Refer to chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight is planned along route T420, course 330°, FL380, inbound TRENT VOR/DME (TNT). A descent should be initiated to pass waypoint ELVOS in FL200. Calculate the Top of Descent (ToD) relating to TRENT for a ground speed of 200 kt and a rate of descent of 1 500 ft/min. (Note: when using the original chart from GSPRM both locations can be found in chart section 7 C)

A) 109 NM

B) 65 NM ✓

C) 40 NM

D) 55 NM

Refer to chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a flight on airway N560 from RIMOL to GLASGOW. Magnetic heading is 197°, TAS is 200 kts and magnetic wind is 347°/45 kt. Calculate the wind correction angle overhead GUSSI:

A) 7°R

B) 6°R ✓

C) 5°L

D) 8°L

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 13-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are following VOR Y RWY 10 procedure but because of a very strong tailwind you are not able to complete the approach. What are you going to do?

A) You will not land but divert to the alternate.

B) You will circle to the north and request landing on runway 28.

C) You will circle to the south and request landing on runway 28. ✓

D) You will circle to the north or south and request landing on runway 28.

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C and ENROUTE chart "E LO 6". When planning a flight from Munich to Alicante, airway A34 is used for the last section and the intended runway is runway 10 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following STARs should be used?

A) VALENCIA 2L ✓

B) GREVU 1M

C) MABUX 1P

D) ASTRO 1L

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 10-3A, 10-3B, 10-3C, 10-3D from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departs from runway 10. Which of the following SIDs will be used?

A) CATON 2C

B) MAGAL 2D

C) MITOS 2A ✓

D) RESTU 1B

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 13-2, 10-2J from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying on airway A-34 to Alicante / Spain (LEAL) and arrives at MAGAL for an approach on runway 10. What is the distance from the IAF to the runway threshold?

A) 21.1 NM

B) 25.5 NM ✓

C) 45.4 NM

D) 28.7 NM

Refer to ALICANTE - charts10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the correct procedure for the SID CATON 2C?

A) Runway heading to 4500 ft then above FL 80 at VILNA, above FL 110 at NARGO and not above FL 230 at CATON.

B) 3500 feet at D9.5 ALT, not above FL 80 at VILNA, Leval at FL 110 NARGO and FL 230 at CATON

C) 3100 feet or higher at D9.5, FL 80 or higher at VILNA, FL110 or higher at NARGO, not above FL 230 at CATON ✓

D) 3100 feet or higher at D9.5 ALT, FL 110 or higher at VILNA, FL110 or higher at NARGO, not above FL 230 at CATON

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-3C, 10-3D from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which SID do you use for runway 04?

A) ANDIK 2E

B) ANDIK 1N

C) ANDIK 2F ✓

D) ANDIK 2G

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. After departure from ALICANTE, you just reach VILNA at FL80 as required. Your cruising level is FL200. With an average rate of climb of 1 200 ft/min and a ground speed of 250 kt, you will be able to reach the cruising level:

A) 6 NM after ASTRO. ✓

B) Just overhead ASTRO.

C) 6 NM before ASTRO.

D) 14 NM before ASTRO.

Refer to ALICANTE - Charts 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C, 10-2D from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a flight from ATHENS (N37º56' E023º57') to ALICANTE (N38º17' W000º34'). Which of the STAR charts will you most likely consider when choosing an arrival route for your operational flight plan to determine the flight distance and fuel requirements?

A) 10-2C ✓

B) 10-2B

C) 10-2D

D) 10-2A

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Your departure is via CATON 3A and you are cleared to FL80. Due to a restriction you have to remain at 2 000 ft until passing VOR/DME ALT. QNH is 1040 hPa, ROC is 800 ft/min and GS is 133 kts. When are you going to reach the top of climb (ToC)?

A) 1 NM before VILNA ✓

B) 4 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA

D) 4 NM after VILNA

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-3C, 10-3D from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which SID do you use for runway 09?

A) ANDIK 2E

B) ANDIK 1N ✓

C) ANDIK 2F

D) ANDIK 2G

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL80, with a restriction to maintain 4 000 ft until passing ALT VOR. The QNH is 1040 hPa, the aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately..

A) 1 NM before VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA ✓

C) 1 NM after VILNA

D) 4 NM after VILNA

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 11-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. When do you start turning inbound for the final approach?

A) When crossing bearing 042 to VOR SPL

B) 1 minute after passing overhead the CH locator ✓

C) 2 minute after passing overhead the CH locator

D) 1 minute after LCTR for category A-B, 1 minute and 15 seconds for category B-C

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 11-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are cleared for an ILS approach 06 for runway via SUGOL. The last clearance you receive is to descend to FL70. You may leave this level:

A) After passing 9.2 KAG DME inbound

B) After passing SPL ✓

C) After passing CH locator

D) When established on the final track (localizer captured) for ILS 06

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO)2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.You are flying on M90 from BERGI to LONAM (page 8 sectors C & D). Which of the following special use airspaces will you be passing through?

A) EH(D)-41B

B) EH(R)-8

C) EH(D)-41A

D) EH(D)-09 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Charts 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C, 10-2D from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are preparing for a fight from MANCHESTER to ALICANTE, along the route: EGCC/23R SANBA1R SANBA N859 HON UN859 BALAN UL152 MAKOX UN860 VLC LEAL/10. Which of the following charts will you consider when choosing an arrival route to decide which STAR to load into your FMS route?

A) 10-2A

B) 10-2D

C) 10-2B ✓

D) 10-2C

Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen E(LO)2. You want to fly from POLE HILL POL 112.1 (N53 45 W002 06) to OTBED (N53 18 E000 02). Which route would you select?

A) POL N601 DESIG L60 OTBED

B) POL N57 DESIG L975 GOLES Y70 OTBED

C) POL N57 DENBY L975 GOLES Y70 OTBED ✓

D) POL Y70 GOLES Y70 OTBED

Given the following data: MSA 8 230 ft QNH 995 hPa (measured at an airfield nearby at MSL) Temperature ISA -18°C Track 123°M Assume 30 ft / hPa Calculate the minimum cruising flight level for a flight under under IFR.

A) FL 120

B) FL 100

C) FL 110 ✓

D) FL 90

Refer to E(LO)2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On a flight through the Netherlands, you pass the TULIP intersection and follow airway Y12 to SPIJKERBOOR (SPY, N52º32' E004º51'). Which communication frequency for Amsterdam do you use when passing TULIP?

A) 128.580 MHz

B) 134.37 MHz

C) 125.75 MHz ✓

D) 123.705 MHz

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from PARIS to AMSTERDAM, which set of STAR is available for you?

A) 10-2C

B) 10-2B

C) 10-2A ✓

D) 10-2

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". The section of a routing is via airway T256 from NORBO to DEAN CROSS (DCS, N54°43' W003°20'). What is the first course after passing NORBO and what is the total distance from NORBO to DCS?

A) 144° (M), 68 NM

B) 141° (M), 68 NM

C) 144° (M), 71 NM ✓

D) 147° (T), 71 NM

Refer to Chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the true course for a flight from KIRKWALL (EGPA, N58°58' W002°54') / KOKAL intersection to ABERDEEN (ADN, N57°19' W0002°16').

A) Via airway N560, track 193°, to WIK, then via airway Y904, track 159°, to ADN.

B) Via airway N560, track 195°, to WIK, then via airway Y904, track 161°, to ADN.

C) Via airway N560, track 192°, to WIK, then via airway Y904, track 158°, to ADN. ✓

D) Via airway N560, track 198°, to WIK, then via airway Y904, track 164°, to ADN.

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the average true course and distance from KEFLAVÍK (BIKF, N63°59.1' W022°36.3') to AMSTERDAM (EHAM, N52°18.5′ E004° 45.8′)?

A) 133°, 1 095 NM ✓

B) 142°, 1 200 NM

C) 118°, 1 095 NM

D) 300°, 1 020 NM

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. ATC instructs you to follow the routing from POLE HILL (POL, N53°45' W002°06') via airway P17 to IPSIR, OBOXA, GASKO and then to continue via P18 to the north. What is the true track from OBOXA to GASKO?

A) 225°

B) 332°

C) 150°

D) 328° ✓

Refer to Chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following is a correctly specified navaid name and frequency from which you can get a bearing at KIRKWALL (EGPA, N58°58' W002°54')?

A) VOR/DME KWL, 118.3 MHz

B) NDB KW, 395 kHz ✓

C) VOR channel 58 - 47

D) VOR KW, 108.6 MHz

Refer to figure Enroute_E(LO)2.Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". A routing is along airway N562 from TURNBERRY (TRN, N55°19' W004° 47') to MACHRIHANISH (MAC, N55°26' W005°39'). What is the distance and magnetic course from waypoint Heron to MAC?

A) 287° (M), 23 NM ✓

B) 287° (T), 31 NM

C) 106° (M), 23 NM

D) 106° (T), 31 NM

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the clearance limit of the given STAR chart?

A) NORKU

B) SCHIPHOL (SPL)

C) EELDE (EEL)

D) ARTIP ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following statements contains all corresponding altitude and flight level instructions when departing via CATON 2C?

A) At D9.5 ALT at or above 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA at or above FL80, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON at or below FL230 ✓

B) At D9.5 ALT above 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA below FL110, overhead NARGO above FL110, at CATON above FL230

C) At D9.5 ALT not below 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA not above FL110, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON below FL230

D) At D9.5 ALT not below 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA at or above FL80, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON below FL230

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - AMSTERDAM - Chart 16-2. What is the MDA for the NDB approach on runway 18C?

A) 1310 ft

B) 880 ft

C) 702 ft

D) 690 ft ✓

Refer to figure Terminal_Amsterdam_11-3 or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - AMSTERDAM - Chart 11-3. What is the minimum descent height for an aircraft CAT A when circling to land on runway 18C?

A) 702 ft

B) 200 ft

C) 711 ft ✓

D) 188 ft

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - AMSTERDAM - Chart 16-2. What is the MDH for the NDB approach on runway 18C?

A) 702 ft ✓

B) 690 ft

C) 1 310 ft

D) 880 ft

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". On an IFR flight close to airfleld LELYSTAD (EHLE, N52°28' E005° 32') you need to determine the distance to the corresponding DME station. Which of the following is the correct frequency and identier?

A) 111.4 MHz, FRO ✓

B) 326 kHz, LLS

C) Channel 51, FRO

D) 123.67 MHz, AFIS

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". On a flight on airway P600 you are passing TURNBERRY VOR (TRN, N55°19' W004° 47') and intersections GIRVA, TUNSO and BLACA. What is the MOCA between GIRVA and TUNSO?

A) 5000 ft ✓

B) 6000 ft

C) FL60

D) FL70

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". The section of a routing is via airway Y96 from NORBO to TALLA (TLA, N55°30' W003°21'). Find the true course to TLA?

A) 096° ✓

B) 099°

C) 095º

D) 102°

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Charts "E LO 1 & E LO 2". You are flying on airway N560 from RIMOL (N57°32' W004°03') to GLASGOW (GOW, N55°52' W004°27'). Shortly before approaching GOW you are on radial:

A) 038° GOW

B) 299° GOW

C) 190° GOW

D) 010° GOW ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Charts 13-1, 13-2, 11-1, 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which approaches start over VILNA?

A) ILS Y and VOR Z

B) ILS Z and VOR Y

C) VOR Y and ILS Y

D) VOR Z and ILS Z ✓

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching AMSTERDAM via REKKEN 2A. Which of the following frequencies can be used to receive an ATIS shortly before passing ARTIP?

A) 112.5 MHz

B) 108.4 MHz ✓

C) 116.8 MHz

D) 113.3 MHz

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category B aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 185 kt. What is the required visibility for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 1600

B) 2400

C) 1500

D) 3600 ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual ALICANTE 11-2. You are arriving to the airport, but when you are about to land, the tailwind changes above limits. What do you do?

A) Continue to land as normal

B) Carry out missed approach and circle South of the airport ✓

C) Divert

D) Land with no flap

Unless otherwise stated on charts for standard instrument departures the depicted routes are defined as:

A) true headings.

B) magnetic courses. ✓

C) true courses.

D) magnetic headings.

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching AMSTERDAM via REKKEN 2A. Which of the following procedures should be followed in case of a radio communication failure?

A) Descend below the ceiling and continue VFR to the airport.

B) Continue on a direct course towards the airport.

C) Fly a holding pattern for at least 7 minutes.

D) Follow the procedures provided on the 10-1P pages of your route manual. ✓

Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Chart E(LO)2. You are flying at FL 360, heading NW and ATC tell you you have to be at FL 200 over ELVOS. How far from TRENT (N53 03 W001 40) should you start your descent? TAS 420 ROD 2000 Ft / Min

A) 25 NM

B) 42

C) 56 NM

D) 81 NM ✓

Refer to chart "E LO 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is following the route Y906, approaching overhead position RIMOL (N57°,33', W004°,03'). Using data below, what is WCA needed to follow the route N560 southbound towards Glasgow VOR(GOW)? MH: 118° W/V (M): 338°/45 kt TAS: 200 kt

A) 12° left

B) 6° right ✓

C) 6° left

D) 12° right

Refer to Amsterdam (EHAM) chart 11-1 from GSPRM 2017. An aircraft in approaching category A is cleared for the procedural ILS approach to runway 06 via CH Locator. At what point should the base turn into localiser track of 058° (M) be started?

A) 1 min after passing overhead the CH Locator. ✓

B) 2 mins after passing overhead the CH Locator.

C) 9.2 NM DME range from ICAG DME.

D) 11.1 NM DME range from SPL DME.

An aeroplane is maintaining M 0.77 at FL360, where the OAT is -55° C, the crew are instructed by ATC to climb to and maintain FL380, where the OAT is -52° C and to maintain a speed of M 0.79. By how much will the TAS change?

A) 9 kt decrease

B) 15 kt increase ✓

C) 15 kt decrease

D) 9 kt increase

Refer to chart Alicante (LEAL) SID 10-3C from GSPRM 2017. A flight is filed to depart from Alicante aerodrome (LEAL) via waypoint MITOS during FMS setup, what constraints should be verified as correct for a MITOS SID from Runway 28?

A) Max 3100 ft at 9.5 NM from ALT Max 220 kt during the turn until ALT Radial 246, 6.3 NM Min 5000 ft at SUMMO

B) Min 3100 ft at 9.5 NM from ALT Min 5000 ft at SUMMO

C) Min 3100 ft at 9.5 NM from ALT Max 220 kt during the turn until ALT Radial 246, 6.3 NM ✓

D) Min 3100 ft at 9.5 NM from ALT Max 220 kt until MITOS

The MOC value to be applied in the primary area for the en-route phase of an IFR flight in mountainous areas, where the variation in terrain elevation is greater than 1500 m, is….

A) 600 m ✓

B) 1000 m

C) 300 m

D) 0 m

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. During an IFR flight you are passing a non-compulsory reporting point called TULIP and your planned route is along airway P1, Northerly direction. You changed the frequency station by mistake. Which of the following frequencies and stations should you type to be back on the correct one, using the ELO(2)?

A) AMSTERDAM 125.75 MHz ✓

B) AMSTERDAM 124.880 MHz

C) AMSTERDAM 123.705 MHz

D) DUTCH MIL 128.355 MHz

Refer to Amsterdam (EHAM) chart 10-2 from GSPRM 2017. You are approaching to Amsterdam EHAM after ARTIP and you need to get ATIS information. Which Navaids facility will provide ATIS information?

A) EEL

B) RKN

C) SPL ✓

D) SPY

Refer to charts. An aircraft travels an air distance of 2 800 NAM at long-range cruise speed. What is the approximate ground distance in NM?

A) In a tailwind of 120 kt, 2 000 NM.

B) In a headwind of 35 kt, 3 000 NM.

C) In a headwind of 50 kt, 2 500 NM. ✓

D) In a tailwind of 50 kt, 2 550 NM.

Refer to charts. An aircraft travels an air distance of 1100 NAM at M.82. What is the approximate ground distance in NM?

A) In a tailwind of 20 kt, 500 NM.

B) In a headwind of 20 kt, 2 000 NM.

C) In a headwind of 50 kt, 1 000 NM. ✓

D) In a tailwind of 70 kt, 1 000 NM.

Given the following information, determine the flight time for a flight leg from “A” to “B”: Distance: 300 NM Wind (true): 340°/40 kt Magnetic course: 300° Variation: 20 E TAS: 440 kt

A) 45 minutes ✓

B) 47 minutes

C) 37 minutes

D) 43 minutes

Refer to E(LO)2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying a Commercial Air Transport operation close to LELYSTAD aerodrome (EHLE, N52°28' E005°32'). To get your distance from the aerodrome, you want to tune in to the radio navigation aid at the aerodrome. What value do you to tune into and what is the identifier of this aid?

A) The frequency is 111.4 MHz, and the identifier is FRO. ✓

B) The frequency is 123.67 MHz, and the identifier is AFIS

C) The channel is 51, and the identifier is FRO

D) The frequency is 326 kHz, and the identifier is LLS

Refer to figure. An aircraft receives the following ATC clearance from the Alicante (LEAL) DELIVERY: “Cleared to destination via the CATON 2C standard departure from runway 28,squawk 4017”. What are the altitude restrictions for this SID?

A) At or above 3100 ft at 9,5 NM from ALT At or above 11000 ft at VILNA At or above 11000 ft at NARGO

B) At or above 3100 ft at 9.5 NM from ALT At or above FL 80 at VILNA At or above FL110 at NARGO At or below FL230 at CATON ✓

C) At or above FL70 overhead ALT. At or above FL 110 at VILNA At or above FL 110 at NARGO At or below FL 230 at CATON.

D) At or above 3100 ft at 9,5 NM from ALT. At or above FL 110 at VILNA At or above FL 110 at NARGO.

Given the following data, what is the TAS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: ISA -10 C Mach number : M 0.82 Wind component : -42 kt

A) 440 kt

B) 452 kt

C) 460 kt ✓

D) 482 kt

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A pilot is completing a navigation flight plan and needs the True Course from waypoint GASKO (N54°13' W001°57') to waypoint OBOXA (N54°11' W001°54'). What is the True Course?

A) 148° ✓

B) 152°

C) 150°

D) 146°

Refer to ALICANTE - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight from MANCHESTER to ALICANTE, is going to pass VALENCIA VOR/DME. Which of the following STAR charts would be suitable?

A) Chart 10-2C.

B) Chart 10-2B. ✓

C) Chart 10-2A.

D) Chart 10-2.

Refer to ALICANTE - charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C and ENROUTE chart "E LO 6". When planning a flight from Munich to Alicante, airway A34 is used for the last section and the intended runway is runway 10 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following STARs should be used?

A) 10-2

B) 10-2A

C) 10-2C

D) 10-2B ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual – ALICANTE – Charts 13-3, 13-4 and 13-5. There is a NOTAM stating that ALTET VOR DME (ALT) is unserviceable at the time of arrival at ALICANTE. What VOR approaches are available from MAGAL to runway 28?

A) VOR Z

B) Neither of them

C) VOR X and Y

D) VOR X only ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 1". An aircraft is flying along airway Y906 and approaches RIMOL (N57°33' W004°03'). If the magnetic wind is 345°/50 kt and the TAS is 200 kt, what is the wind correction angle if the pilot wants to continue south on airway N560 inbound Glasgow VOR?

A) 10ºL

B) 10ºR

C) 6ºL

D) 6ºR ✓

(Refer to the attached figure from CAP 697, Figure 4.5.3.2 Mach 0.74 Cruise PA 35 000 ft). An aeroplane is flying at FL350, where the OAT is -40°C. What is the TAS if the aeroplane’s gross weight is 60 200 kg?

A) 426 kt

B) 386 kt

C) 411 kt

D) 441 kt ✓

Refer to the attached figure or CAP697 MRJT-Fig. 4.5.1. Determine the average TAS in the climb of an aircraft with the following data: Brake Release Mass: 44 000 kg Airfield elevation: 2 000 ft Top of Climb altitude: 6 000 ft OAT at 6 000 ft: +8°C

A) 245 kt

B) 295 kt ✓

C) 251 kt

D) 301 kt

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from PARIS to AMSTERDAM, which set of STAR is available for you?

A) EELDE 1B, NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2B

B) TOPPA 2A, EELDE 1A, NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2A

C) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A

D) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PUTTY 1A, PESER 2A ✓

When planning to fly through a mountaineous area, the minimum safe altitude (MSA) is 8 000 ft. The QNH from an airport in the vicinity, elevation 0 ft, is 990 hPa and the temperature at FL100 is -25°C. Determine the lowest usable flight level. (Assume 1 hPa = 27 ft)

A) FL120

B) FL100 ✓

C) FL090

D) FL080

What is the MOC value to be applied in the primary area for the en-route phase of an IFR flight in mountainous areas, where the variation in terrain elevation is 2 000 ft?

A) 1 000 m

B) 600 m

C) 450 m

D) 300 m ✓

The lowest altitude between radio navigation aids, providing an acceptable coverage and fulfils obstacle clearance requirements between such fixes is:

A) MOCA (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude)

B) MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude)

C) MSA (Minimum Sector Altitude)

D) MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude) ✓

Determine the lowest suitable ICAO IFR cruise level, given: Track 185°(T), Variation 5°E and Heading 182° (M).

A) FL270

B) FL 300

C) FL 290

D) FL 280 ✓

Determine the lowest suitable ICAO IFR cruise level, given: Track 185°(T), Variation 9°E and Heading 182° (M).

A) FL310

B) FL290

C) FL280

D) FL270 ✓

Refer to figures. Which STARs should the pilot choose when approaching AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) from the South?

A) TOPPA 2A.

B) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A.

C) EELDE 1A, EELDE 1B, REKKEN 2A, REKKEN 2B.

D) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PESER 2A, PUTTY 1A. ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL110, with a restriction to maintain 4 000 ft until passing ALT VOR. The QNH is 1040 hPa, the aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 130 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately..

A) 1 NM before VILNA.

B) 7 NM before VILNA.

C) 1 NM after VILNA. ✓

D) 4 NM after VILNA.

An aircraft is flying at FL200. The OAT = ISA +10° C. The QNH given by a station at an elevation 1 000 ft is 1 010 hPa. The True Altitude, rounded to 100 ft, is: Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft.

A) 20 700 ft. ✓

B) 19 200 ft.

C) 18 600 ft.

D) 17 200 ft.

An aircraft is flying at FL80. The ISA deviation is -20ºC. The elevation of the ground is 2500ft and the QNH equals 1040 hPa. The True Altitude is:

A) 9 290 ft.

B) 8 305 ft. ✓

C) 8 810 ft.

D) 6 815 ft.

Provided that safe altitude in respect of MOCA is maintained while cruising at FL90, determine the True Altitude. Given: MOCA: 5 600 ft QNH: 1 002 hPa Airport elevation: 2 480 ft OAT: ISA-10ºC Assume 1 hPa/30 ft.

A) 9 330 ft.

B) 8 920 ft.

C) 8 670 ft.

D) 8 420 ft. ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - ALICANTE - Chart 10-2B. The distance from KOVAM to BESOR is:

A) 82 NM

B) 70 NM

C) 61 NM ✓

D) 37 NM

Refer to figure. What is a true statement in respect to a departure along CATON 2C from Alicante, Spain?

A) Minimum climb gradient required is 5.0% until reaching FL70.

B) There is no speed restriction on this departure.

C) The distance between VILNA and NARGO is roughly 15 NM. ✓

D) Minimum altitude along the departure route from VILNA to NARGO is FL110.

Determine the true altitude to make sure that the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) is maintained. Given: MOCA: 3 950 ft Cruising level: FL050 OAT: ISA-15ºC QNH: 1 004 hPa Aerodrome elevation: 1 340 ft

A) 5 030 ft

B) 4 900 ft

C) 4 530 ft ✓

D) 4 750 ft

What is an ILS CAT I approach with a DH of 240 ft?

A) Type B 3D approach. ✓

B) Type B 2D approach.

C) Type A 3D approach.

D) Type A 2D approach.

Refer to figure or SANTORINI - Chart 10-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is a correct description of how a descent must be flown while following STAR PEXAN 1C at Santorini, Greece?

A) MSA in the area will be 3 600 ft.

B) Lowest altitude before passing PEXAN 7 000 ft. ✓

C) When passing PEXAN inbound, you may descend to 3 000 ft.

D) You should proceed at or below 7 000 ft until reaching PEXAN.

Refer to E(LO)-3 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the name of the airway between DRAKE (50º12'N, 000º04'W) and SITET (50º06'N, 000º00'E/W) and is it a one way or two way airway?

A) A 34, a one way airway.

B) A 34, a two way airway.

C) L151 and N859. Two way airways.

D) L151 and N859. N859 is one way airways. ✓

Refer to DUBROVNIK - Charts 10-1P, 13-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight from Tromso airport (ENTC) to Dubrovnik airport (LDDU), what is correct statement for your arrival in to LDDU?

A) Commander must be pilot flying. ✓

B) MSA in the north sector is 4 800 ft.

C) During north-westerly winds, severe turbulence possible.

D) Should intercept radial 128 from DBK and look for visual reference.

Refer to E(LO)-3 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight with MRJT is planned from Glasgow to Valencia. Part of the route is along A34/UN85934, from SITET (50º06'N, 000º00'E/W) to L'AIGLE VOR (LGL, 48º47'N, 000º32'E). The TAS is 382 kt and the W/V is 110º(M)/30 kt. Calculate the flight time for this portion of the flight:

A) 22 min

B) 17 min

C) 13 min ✓

D) 9 min

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-2B from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The ATIS frequency is…

A) 120.075 MHz ✓

B) 117.55 MHz

C) 114.65 MHz

D) 113.8 MHz

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The initial climb out procedure for SID CATON 2C is to:

A) As directed by ATC.

B) 315º (T)

C) Climb on runway heading. ✓

D) 315º (M)

PBN 3D approaches are: 1. GNSS + VNAV 2. GLS 3. PAR 4. RNP 1 5. ILS 6. SBAS

A) 1 and 6. ✓

B) 1, 5 and 6.

C) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6.

D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6.

The following Instrument Approach Operations are classified as 3D Approach Operations: 1. RNP APCH (GNSS and baro VNAV) 2. GLS 3. PAR 4. RNP 1 5. ILS 6. RNP APCH (SBAS)

A) 1, 3, 4 and 6.

B) Only 1, 5 and 6.

C) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

D) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. ✓

Refer to AMSTERDAM (EHAM) SID Chart 10-3J from the Jeppesen GSPRM2017. What is the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?

A) 1700 ft between the 177o and 130o radials from SPL ✓

B) 1700 ft between the 357o and 310o radials from SPL

C) 1700 m between the 357o and 310o radials from SPL

D) 1700 m between the 177o and 130o radials from SPL

Refer to figure. (For this question use chart E(LO)1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). For an IFR flight from KIRKWALL VOR(KWL)(N58°57', W002°54') to ABERDEEN VOR(ADN) (N57°18',W002°16'), via WICK VOR(WIK) (N58°27', W003°06'), following airways N560 and Y904, the magnetic track directions are respectively…

A) 015° and 161°

B) 195° and 341°

C) 195° and 161° ✓

D) 015° and 341°

Refer to figures. (For this question use ALICANTE (LEAL) STAR charts 10-2B and 10-2G from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). You will be arriving at LEAL aerodrome at 17:00 LT via point CALLES Runway 28 is in use. What STAR should you expect?

A) CALLES 2N ✓

B) CALLES 1L

C) CALLES 1K

D) CALLES 1R

Refer to figure. (For this question use chart E(LO)2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). What is the magnetic track and distance from GOLES (N53o 36', W001o 05') to Pole Hill VOR (POL) (N53o 45', W002o 06')?

A) 284o/37 NM ✓

B) 104o/37 NM

C) 104o/27 NM

D) 284o/27 NM

An aircraft being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight has an Approach Climb Gradient (ACG) capability of 3.7%. Three instrument approach procedures are available and listed below. Which of these could be selected for that flight? 1. ILS/DME APP, minimum ACG required is 3.0% 2. LOC/DME APP, minimum ACG required is 3.7% 3. VOR/DME APP, minimum ACG required is 4.2%

A) 1 or 2 ✓

B) 2 or 3

C) 1 only

D) 2 only

You are flying a heading of 120° with a TAS of 110 kt. If the wind is from 260° at 30 kt, what will be your drift angle and ground speed?

A) 7° right and 136 kt

B) 8° right and 140 kt

C) 8° left and 134 kt ✓

D) 10° left and 132 kt

Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except when specifically authorised by the competent authority, an IFR flight shall be flown over high terrain or in mountainous areas at a level which is at least (1)..... above the highest obstacle located within (2)..... of the estimated position of the aircraft.

A) (1) 600 m (2000 ft); (2) 8 km ✓

B) (1) 300 m (1000 ft); (2) 8 km

C) (1) 600 m (2000 ft); (2) 5 km

D) (1) 300 m (1000 ft); (2) 5 km

Except for a take-off or landing, an IFR flight has to be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State overflown. If no such minimum flight altitude has been established, what is the minimum altitude of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas?

A) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

B) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

C) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. ✓

D) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

You are on an RNP APCH to an airfield using SBAS. What are the lowest minima that can be used?

A) CAT I minima.

B) LPV (localiser performance with vertical guidance) minima. ✓

C) LNAV/VNAV minima.

D) LNAV minima.

What is an LPV approach?

A) An approach with LNAV/VNAV minima in reference with ground based facility.

B) An approach with vertical guidance based only on BaroVNAV.

C) An approach with LNAV minima that is flown using the CDFA technique.

D) An approach with vertical guidance based on GNSS augmented by a space based facility. ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE 10-2B chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which arrival route would you expect, due to a sea breeze in Alicante?

A) CLS 2N and VLC 2N

B) CLS 2N and VLC 2L

C) CLS 1L and CLS 2N

D) CLS 1L and VLC 2L ✓

Refer to figure. (For this question use the chart "E(LO) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). A route connects the waypoints AMGAR (42º33'18.40"N, 003º15'12.00"W) and BUGIX (42º21'29.00"N, 003º38'7.00"W). What kind of route is this?

A) Conditional ATS route.

B) RNAV ATS route. ✓

C) Direct ATS route.

D) ATS route used by non B-RNAV equipped aircraft.

On some charts you can find the following abbreviations: "RNP AR APCH". What does "AR" mean?

A) AERODROME RUNWAY

B) AREA

C) AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED ✓

D) ARRIVING

Who is responsible for terrain clearance in flight?

A) The ATC in ABCD airspace.

B) The PIC all time.

C) The PIC and the ATC.

D) The PIC all time unless under vectors. ✓

The MSA is 2500 ft and the ATC instructs the pilot to turn to heading 180º and descend to 2300 ft to be vectored for the ILS. What does the pilot have to do?

A) Turn to heading 180º, descend to 2500 ft and call ATC because 2300 ft is below MSA.

B) Turn to heading 180º, maintain current altitude, and call ATC because 2300 ft is below MSA.

C) Turn to heading 180º and descend to 2300 ft. ✓

D) Maintain current heading and call ATC because 2300 ft is below MSA.

Refer to figure. The figure shows a partially completed navigation plan from Ajaccio aerodrome (LFKJ) in Corsica with elevation 17 ft. If your rate of climb is 1000 ft/min, at what distance from AJO will you reach FL130?

A) 18 NM ✓

B) 28 NM

C) 26 NM

D) 30 NM

An aircraft is making a 2D (LNAV) approach under IMC, to an aerodrome where the temperature is significantly different from ISA. Which of the following is correct regarding temperature corrections to the MDA?

A) The Pilot-In-Command is responsible for making a correction if the temperature is much lower than ISA. ✓

B) The Controller will pass on a correction when the temperature is much higher than ISA.

C) The Pilot-In-Command is responsible for making a correction if the temperature is much higher than ISA.

D) The Controller will pass on a correction when the temperature is much lower than ISA.

Some approaches are labelled RNP APCH. These approaches are based on GNSS and can be recognised on the charts by...

A) LNAV and/or LNAV/VNAV minima being published. ✓

B) Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) minima being published.

C) Decision Height (DH) minima being published.

D) Decision Altitude (DA) minima being published.

The crew of an aircraft flying at FL 100 in IMC in mountainous terrain wishes to descend to FL70. Given the following information, what is the True Altitude at FL70 that the crew needs to use to confirm terrain clearance before descending to the new level? OAT at FL100: -20o C QNH: 975 hPa QNH report is from a nearby airport close to sea level Pressure correction 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 7650 ft

B) 6210 ft

C) 5370 ft

D) 5510 ft ✓

An aircraft is flying at FL80, where the OAT is ISA - 15° C. The QNH given by a meteorological station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 1020 hPa. Calculate the approximate True Altitude of the aircraft. Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft.

A) 7735 ft. ✓

B) 8685 ft.

C) 8210 ft.

D) 7623 ft.

An aircraft on a track of 140°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 8400 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1005 hPa and the OAT is ISA -15°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in non-RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL130 ✓

B) FL100

C) FL110

D) FL120

You are flying at 7000 ft on track 270º(T) and you want to be at 2000 ft 10 NM before you reach the waypoint. If the TAS is 168 kt, the average wind is 040º(T)/20 kt and the rate of descent is 1000 ft/min, how far is the ToD from the waypoint?

A) 25 NM ✓

B) 30 NM

C) 15 NM

D) 5 NM

An aircraft on a track of 130º(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 26500 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1003 hPa and OAT is ISA + 10º C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL290 ✓

C) FL320

D) FL300

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning to fly from CARBONARA VOR (N39°07' E009°30') to AJACCIO VOR (N41°46' E008°46') using an RNAV ATS route, which is the shortest route to fly?

A) CAR - M732 - ALG - L978 - OBOBO - AJO

B) CAR - M732 - ALG - L42 - AJO ✓

C) CAR - M732 - RAMEN - M858 - MINKA - P872 - AJO

D) CAR - M732 - ALG- L5 - POZZO - J19 - AJO

An aircraft is routing in IMC towards Aberdeen aerodrome from the south-east, where the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is 2500 feet. While routing towards the ATF NDB at 3000 feet on the Aberdeen QNH, the following instruction is received by the pilot from the Approach Radar controller: ‘’Turn left, heading 285 degrees, descend 2300 feet. Radar vectors for the ILS Runway 34’’. The pilot should…

A) Turn left to head 285°(M) but maintain 3000 feet and request new descent instructions, because 2300 feet is below MSA.

B) Turn left to head 285°(M) and descend to 2300 feet. The minimum radar vectoring altitude may be below MSA. ✓

C) Maintain heading and altitude, and request new descent instructions, because 2300 feet is below MSA.

D) Turn left to head 285°(T) and descend to 2500 feet altitude, because this is the MSA. Inform the controller about the change.

Who is responsible for terrain separation during an IFR flight on an ATS route?

A) Air Traffic Control service.

B) The Operator.

C) The Pilot-in-Command. ✓

D) The aircraft owner.

An aircraft on a track of 046º(M) has to fly over an obstacle of 4600 ft with a clearance of 1000 ft. The QNH is 990 hPa and the temperature is ISA -15°C. What is the minimum safe flight level at which the aircraft may fly? Assume 30ft per hPa.

A) FL60

B) FL50

C) FL70 ✓

D) FL80

Which is a correct statement with reference to an RNAV SID?

A) The aircraft must be fitted with an auto-flight system to follow the RNAV SID.

B) RNAV SIDs are unavailable if a ground-based radio navigation aid is used.

C) The RNAV SID can be flown without ground-based radio navigation aids. ✓

D) An RNAV SID is a departure procedure that is limited by the transition altitude.

Refer to figure. (For this question use CAP 697 Figure 3.4). An aeroplane is flying at FL90 at the economy power setting. What is the TAS if the OAT is ISA -10C?

A) 179 kt

B) 170 kt ✓

C) 175 kt

D) 143 kt

How much is the clearance passing the highest obstacle in the following scenario? An aircraft is flying at FL170 in mountainous terrain on the northern side of the alps and the charted minimum grid-area altitude is 16200 feet. The outside air temperature at FL170 is -29°C The QNH is 1000.25 hPa given by a meteorological station with elevation 13500 feet. Assume 1hPa = 30 feet

A) 2676 ft

B) 2286 ft ✓

C) 286 ft

D) 2120 ft

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have been requested to perform a flight overflying the Rennes VOR (REN) (N48°04' W001°45') and the ORIST waypoint (N50°00' W001°51'). Which airway would you file in your flight plan?

A) UN862

B) UT 507

C) UP87

D) UY110 ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE (LEAL) charts 11-1, 11-2, 13-1 and 13-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is planned to fly to Alicante Elche aerodrome (LEAL) with the following entry in the tech log "ADF inoperative due broken frequency selector parts ordered". How will this affect the availability of approaches to Runway 10 at Alicante?

A) Both the VOR approaches are available. The ILS and LOC approaches are unavailable. ✓

B) Only the VOR Z approach is available.

C) All given ILS and VOR approaches are available. The LOC A and LOC B approaches are unavailable.

D) All given approaches are available as none of them are based on the AI NDB.

When reviewing the wind charts in the briefing room, you notice that the average wind in cruise will be 25 kt tailwind. Given the following data, what will be the flight time to destination? Time to top of climb: 28 minutes Cruise leg: 760 NM, FL 330 TAS 470 kt ISA -10°C Time from top of descent to landing: 20 minutes

A) 1 hour 37 minutes

B) 1 hour 32 minutes

C) 2 hours 25 minutes

D) 2 hours 20 minutes ✓

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM EHAM STAR 10-2B chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Where is the initial Approach Fix (IAF)?

A) On the 241 radial and at 41.3 NM DME from SPL VORDME.

B) On the 292 radial and at 31 DME from SPL VOR/DME. ✓

C) As directed by ATC.

D) Either at SUGOL or ROBVI.

What is an advantage of using GNSS FMC equipment in flight?

A) Updated wind to keep ETA prediction and remaining fuel calculation accurate. ✓

B) There is NO need for a route check as this is an automatic function.

C) The aircraft systems require less data from the Air Data Computer.

D) In-flight weather is more easily detected and avoided.

What will be the effect on the FMC fuel and time predictions if the aircraft is in a non-standard configuration?

A) The predicted fuel remaining will be incorrect and the pilots should watch out for this. ✓

B) The FMC can not provide ETAs or fuel predictions.

C) There will be no effect as FMC will make an automatic correction.

D) Only the next waypoint eta and remaining fuel will be accurate.

The temperature correction in a instrument approach must be applied when it is (1) _ than ISA and correction is (2) _ to/from the DH.

A) (1) warmer; (2) added.

B) (1) colder; (2) subtracted.

C) (1) warmer; (2) subtracted.

D) (1) colder; (2) added. ✓

Some procedures are designated as RNP AR APCH. Which of the following is an example of how to identify, on an instrument approach chart, a procedure which necessitates this designation?

A) Any procedure with LNAV/VNAV minima.

B) A procedure with a curved final approach segment. ✓

C) Any procedure with LPV minima.

D) A procedure using a GNSS Landing System (GLS) with CAT minima.

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the type of ATS route which passes from ABERDEEN VOR/DME (ADN, N57°18', W002°16') to OVDAN?

A) Conditional route.

B) RNAV route. ✓

C) Direct route.

D) Conventional route.

Refer to figure. Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-3Q from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What does EHØ48 indicate?

A) Fly-over waypoint.

B) Fly-over waypoint, except for B737.

C) Fly-by waypoint.

D) Fly-by waypoint, except for B737. ✓

A crew plans a route on which the Grid Minimum off route Altitude (Grid MORA) for the first section of the route is 7600 feet. The route is in mountainous terrain so 2000 feet obstacle clearance is required. Given the following information, what is the minimum flight level (FL) to fly for this part of the route? Elevation of departure aerodrome: 178 ft QNH at departure aerodrome: 986 hPa ISA deviation: -17° C Pressure correction: 1 hPa 30

A) FL90 ✓

B) FL80

C) FL100

D) FL85

What is the minimum pressure altitude to pass a mountain ridge with 2000 ft clearance with the following data? Mountain ridge elevation: 13 500 ft Outside Air temperature: ISA -15°C QNH given by a meteorological station at elevation 8000 ft: 1030 hPa Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 15 950 ft

B) 15 920 ft

C) 14 540 ft

D) 15 440 ft ✓

For non-augmented GNSS operations, why must the availability of the GNSS service be checked before use?

A) Only specific satellites produce the required signals for non-augmented operations.

B) There is NO indication on the flight deck in the case of the loss of a required satellite signal. ✓

C) The GNSS receiver must be programmed with the availability check.

D) Non-augmented GNSS operations must be registered with the service provider in advance.

Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Chart E(LO)2. A flight is planned along route T420, course 330°, FL360, inbound TRENT VOR/DME (TNT, N 53.1° W 1.7°). A descent should be initiated to pass waypoint ELVOS at FL200. Calculate the Top of Descent (TOD) relating to TRENT, given the following information: ROD: 2 300 ft/min GS: 345 kt Wind component: 35 kt tailwind

A) 44 NM

B) 40 NM

C) 69 NM

D) 65 NM ✓

What is the difference between an RNAV STAR and RNAV STAR overlay?

A) The RNAV STAR allows for efficient sequencing of the traffic flow, thus reducing the workload of the ATC. ✓

B) The RNAV STAR overlay is a shorter route than the RNAV STAR.

C) The RNAV STAR is designed to replace the conventional navigation systems routing.

D) The RNAV STAR overlay is a longer route than the RNAV STAR.

Refer to figure or to ALICANTE (LEAL) STAR 10-2B from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are briefing the VLC2L STAR into LEAL, and your captain asks you for the MEA and the distance between Valencia VOR and your IAF. What do you reply?

A) 6 100 ft and 61 NM.

B) FL70 and 70 NM.

C) FL80 and 59 NM. ✓

D) 6 600 ft and 59 NM.

Refer to ABERDEEN - Chart 10-1R from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying on 090º Radial inbound ABERDEEN VOR/DME (ADN). You will pass:

A) 2 500 ft to 1 700 ft.

B) 3 200 ft to 2 300 ft to 1 700 ft.

C) 2 800 ft to 2 300 ft to 1 700 ft.

D) 2 000 ft to 1 700 ft. ✓

Refer to ABERDEEN - Chart 10-1R from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching Aberdeen airport from 18 NM SW. What minimum radar altitudes are you passing?

A) 2 500 ft to 2 300 ft to 1 700 ft.

B) 2 300 ft to 2 000 ft to 2 300 ft.

C) 4 100 ft to 2 800 ft to 2 300 ft to 1 700 ft.

D) 4 100 ft to 3 200 ft to 2 800 ft to 2 300 ft. ✓

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. While following airways, select the shortest distance route to fly from Mallorca VOR (MJV) (N39º26' E002º45') to Barcelona VOR (BCN) (N41º18', E002º06').

A) MJV - A29 - ADX - W2 - BISES - R870 - BCN

B) MJV - A29 - ADX - N861 - RODRA - B28 - BCN ✓

C) MJV - A29 - ADX - W2 - NOVAS - G7 - BCN

D) MJV - B31 - BCN

An aircraft is following a defined RNP 2 route and approaching a waypoint where a track change of 40º is required. The route is part of a route system with 4 parallel routes and reliable lateral separation between the aircraft on the different routes is essential. Which of the following types of FMS coding of the waypoint will ensure lateral separation between aircraft also during the turn?

A) Fly-by waypoint

B) Radius to Fix (RF) path terminator

C) Fly-over waypoint

D) Fixed Radius Transition (FRT) ✓

Which of the following is(are) Type A approach(es)? 1. ILS with MDH>250 ft 2. VOR with MDH=270 ft 3. VOR with MDH=240 ft 4. ILS with MDH=50 ft

A) 2 and 3

B) Only 2

C) 1, 2, 3

D) 1 and 2 ✓

Your vertical autopilot guidance is down, you choose to do LNAV instead of LNAV/VNAV. This final is...

A) non-precision with 2D guidance. ✓

B) precision with 2D guidance.

C) non-precision with 3D guidance.

D) precision with 3D guidance.

Refer to Stuttgart Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You're doing an RNP approach to RWY 25 at EDDS airport. On the approach chart, the waypoint DSØ5Ø is a…

A) fly by point.

B) fly over point. ✓

C) non-compulsory reporting point.

D) compulsory reporting point.

Refer to Amsterdam Chart 10-3E from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. On the departure chart, EHØ14…

A) is a compulsory waypoint.

B) is a speed restriction.

C) is a waypoint where turn is initiated.

D) is a waypoint that requires a turn anticipation. ✓

Refer to Nantes/Atlantique Chart 19-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are taking-off from RWY 03, abeam holding point B. What is the take-off length available?

A) 2690 m

B) 2900 ft

C) 2000 m ✓

D) 2900 m

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 16-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) at SPL?

A) 690 ft

B) 2000 ft

C) FL70 ✓

D) FL90

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) at VILNA(IAF)?

A) 5900 ft

B) FL100

C) 6500 ft

D) FL70 ✓

An incident with respect to safe terrain separation occurs during night VMC in Class G airspace. The aircraft involved in the incident is operating on an IFR flight plan. Considering this scenario, which of the statements below is correct with respect to terrain separation?

A) When operating at night in class G airspace, safe terrain separation is the responsibility of the Air Traffic Controller issuing radar vectors.

B) In uncontrolled airspace, the Pilot-in-Command is solely responsible for ensuring safe terrain separation. ✓

C) Only during VMC is the Pilot-In-Command responsible for safe terrain separation.

D) For all IFR flights, irrespective of the airspace class, maintaining safe terrain separation is the combined responsibility of the Pilot in Command and the Air Traffic Controller.

An aircraft is cleared to transit a zone at 2 000 ft. Who is responsible for terrain separation?

A) The Pilot-In-Command is never responsible when receiving ATS.

B) The ATC when flying VFR.

C) The ATC when flying IFR in Class A,B,C or D airspace.

D) The Pilot-In-Command, unless being radar vectored in IFR. ✓

Refer to chart E(LO)2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic bearing and distance from Trent (TNT) VOR/DME (53°03'N, 001°40'W) to waypoint AMVEL (53°11'N, 000° 02'W).

A) 260°M / 52 NM

B) 264°M / 58 NM

C) 080°M / 51 NM

D) 084°M / 59 NM ✓

Refer to E(LO)6 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying from VALENCIA (VLC) VOR/DME (39° 29'N, 000° 29'W) to ALMERIA (AMR) VOR/DME (36° 49'N, 002° 15'W) with the LE(R)-63 activated, using a conventional ATS route. What is the best route to avoid passing through this area?

A) VLC - A34 - ALT - W810 - VSJ - W820 - AMR

B) VLC - B28 - BAZAS - M192 - AMR

C) VLC - B28 - VIBAS - N865 - AMR ✓

D) VLC - G850 - AMR

Refer to figure. According to the extract from a typical flight plan produced by an airline flight planning tool, what is the total flight time from Skiathos (LGSK) to Kavala (LGKV)? In order to calculate this total flight time, find the EET to THESSALONIKI (TSL).

A) 20 minutes

B) 25 minutes

C) 38 minutes ✓

D) 31 minutes

An aircraft is flying at FL035 above an airfield with an elevation of 1416 ft. If the airfield QNH is 1025 hPa, and the temperature is 12°C below ISA, what is the true height above the aerodrome datum? (Assume 30 ft per hPa.)

A) 4050 ft

B) 1640 ft

C) 3680 ft

D) 2330 ft ✓

Given the following information, what is the ground distance covered during the descent from FL320 to 5000 ft? Rate of descent: 1200 ft/min TAS: 420 kt Tailwind: 45 kt QNH: 995 hPa Assume 1 Hpa = 30 ft

A) 178 NM

B) 138 NM

C) 171 NM ✓

D) 174 NM

A light twin engined aircraft departs La Fleche aerodrome (LFAL) in France to route across to Nantes Airport (LFRS). Due to weather conditions the aircraft receives clearance to cross Nantes control zone, Class D airspace, IFR at 2000 ft with the pilot's own routing. Which of the following is correct regarding the responsibility for terrain separation?

A) The Pilot-in-Command is always responsible for terrain separation, except when following vectors under IFR. ✓

B) The Pilot-in-Command is always responsible for terrain separation.

C) The Air Traffic Controller is responsible for terrain separation for all IFR flights in Class A, B, C or D airspace.

D) The Air Traffic Controller is responsible for terrain separation when giving the aircraft an altitude to fly under IFR.

The legend for a chart states that the procedure is an APV Baro or APV SBAS instrument approach procedure. The significance of this is that the approach is an approach procedure with vertical guidance, which is....

A) 3D approach down to minima published as LNAV/VNAV or LPV. ✓

B) 2D non - precision approach down to minima published as LNAV or LP.

C) 2D non - precision approach down to minima published as MDA, LNAV or LP.

D) 3D precision approach down to minima published as DA or DH.

Which of the following are approaches with vertical guidance (APV)? 1. LP 2. LPV 3. LNAV 4. LNAV/VNAV

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 2, 3 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 4 ✓

Which of the following RNP Approaches (RNP APCH) are approaches without vertical guidance? 1. LNAV 2. LPV 3. LNAV/VNAV 4. LP

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 4 ✓

An aerodrome has an ILS approach to RWY 20 with a DA of 250 ft. If the aerodrome elevation is 110 ft, what is the category of the approach?

A) No category

B) Category III

C) Category I

D) Category II ✓

Which option is correct as regards checking the availability of the GNSS service for flights that will rely on GNSS information for guidance?

A) The availability of satellites is dependent on the aircraft's equipment.

B) The availability of satellites is dependent on ground-based navigation aids.

C) Satellites may NOT be available due to the status of the constellation. ✓

D) Satellites may NOT be available due to terrain and/or antenna masking.

A CAT flight is on final approach to the destination aerodrome. ATC issued an instruction to go around, but NO further delays are expected. During the MAP, it becomes apparent that a new landing CANNOT be completed with Alternate Fuel plus Final Reserve Fuel remaining on landing. What is the best decision for the commander to take?

A) Perform a landing at the destination provided the landing can be assured and completed with at least Final reserve Fuel remaining. ✓

B) Divert to the alternate to ensure a landing can be completed with Contingency Fuel intact as per the rule on fuel policy.

C) Re-plan as a flight without an alternate aerodrome, provided a landing can be made with Final reserve plus 15 minutes remaining.

D) Enter a holding pattern to minimise the fuel flow while deciding whether it is possible to land at destination with sufficient fuel remaining.

Given the following information, calculate the true altitude of the aircraft to ensure that the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is available. Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA): 4870 ft Cruise: FL60 Local aerodrome QNH: 995 hPa Local aerodrome elevation: 2 430 ft OAT: ISA -15°C Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 6293 ft

B) 5642 ft

C) 5132 ft

D) 5278 ft ✓

In terms of the flight method used to conduct an approach, which type does the following definition describe? This type of approach has both lateral and vertical guidance ; the flight path can use both a Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) and Glide Path (GP) indicator.

A) Type B

B) Type A

C) 2 D

D) 3 D ✓

In terms of the flight method used to conduct an approach, which type does the following definition describe? This type of approach has lateral guidance only; the pilot must calculate a rate of descent and normally use a Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) method.

A) Type B

B) Type A

C) 3 D

D) 2 D ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight: Missed Approach at destination: 6 min Climb to cruise level: 7 min Cruise distance: 85 NM Cruise TAS: 165 kt Tailwind component: 10 kt Anticipated hold at alternate: 10 min Descent to alternate: 6 min Approach to alternate: 7 min What is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome?

A) 69 minutes

B) 59 minutes

C) 65 minutes ✓

D) 55 minutes

Refer to E(LO)6 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the best route for an aircraft flying from VALENCIA (VLC) VOR/DME (39° 29'N, 000° 29'W) to ALMERIA (AMR) VOR/DME (36° 49'N, 002° 15'W) with the LE(R)-63 not activated?

A) VLC - B28 - BAZAS - M192 - AMR

B) VLC - B28 - R47- BLN - M192 - AMR

C) VLC - G850 - AMR

D) VLC - A34 - ALT - D - AMR ✓

Refer to ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum equipment required to fly the GERVU 1M STAR procedure, referring to the BRNAV requirement?

A) DME; VOR

B) VOR/DME or GPS; NDB

C) DME; GPS or VOR/DME ✓

D) DME; NDB

The highest obstacle located within 8 km of a specific IFR route is 1220 ft. What is the minimum altitude providing the required obstacle clearance?

A) 3300 ft

B) 3220 ft

C) 2220 ft ✓

D) 2300 ft

Refer to Alicante charts 10-2G, 13-3, 13-4, and 13-5 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A pilot is expecting to follow either CALLES 1R (CLS 1R) or VALENCIA 1R (VLC 1R) STAR procedures. Which VOR approaches can the pilot follow afterwards?

A) VOR X and VOR Z approaches. ✓

B) VOR Y and VOR Z approaches.

C) VOR X, VOR Y and VOR Z approaches.

D) VOR X and VOR Y approaches.

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which route is the shortest from Pole Hill (POL) VOR (N53°45', W002°06') to Dean Cross (DCS) DME (N54°43', W003°20')?

A) Route: POL - N57 - DCS. Distance: 73 NM

B) Route: POL - N601- TLA - N864 - DCS. Distance: 161 NM

C) Route: POL - Y70 - KOLID - L70 - GUNTU - N864 - DCS. Distance: 108 NM ✓

D) Route: POL - P17 - BARTN - L975 - WAL - N864 - DCS. Distance: 126 NM

Refer to Stuttgart charts 10-3C, 10-3D, 10-3F and 10-3L from the Jeppesen GSPRM. Which SID procedures would be suitable for a flight of a jet aircraft from Stuttgart aerodrome (EDDS) N48°41'24 E009°13'19 to Saarbrucken aerodrome (EDDR) N49°12'52 E007°06'34?

A) KARLSRUHE 5B, DINKELSBUHL NINE BRAVO or ETASA FOUR BRAVO

B) DINKELSBUHL NINE BRAVO or DINKELSBUHL FOUR HOTEL

C) KARLSRUHE 5B or KARLSRUHE 2H ✓

D) ETASA FOUR BRAVO, ETASA TWO HOTEL, SULZ THREE BRAVO, or SULZ THREE HOTEL

Refer to Stuttgart chart 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the MSA for an aircraft approaching from radial 260º when it is 14 NM away from the VOR station ?

A) 3300 ft ✓

B) 4200 ft

C) 3900 ft

D) 3400 ft

Refer to Stuttgart chart 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the MSA for an aircraft approaching from radial 085º when it is 14 NM away from the VOR station?

A) 4600

B) 4200 ✓

C) 3900

D) 3400

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)6 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the shortest route from ALTET VOR/DME (ALT) N38º16' W000º34' to BARCELONA VOR/DME (BCN) N41º18' E002º06')?

A) ALT – B46 – IZA – A293 – EBROX – B28 – BCN.

B) ALT – R29 – SERRA – B28 – BCN.

C) ALT – B46 – MITOS – N608 – SOPET – B28 – BCN. ✓

D) ALT – A34 – VLC – B28 – BCN.

Refer to AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are approaching AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) from the East. Which routes should you use?

A) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A

B) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PESER 2A, PUTTY 1A

C) TOPPA 2A

D) REKKEN 2A, REKKEN 2B, NORKU 2A, NORKU 2B ✓

What is the difference between an RNAV SID and an RNAV overlay SID?

A) The RNAV overlay SID is a longer route than the RNAV SID.

B) The RNAV overlay SID will follow the same track as the conventional procedure. ✓

C) The RNAV overlay SID will take more time due to less constraints.

D) The RNAV overlay SID will take less time due to less constraints.

Refer to Stuttgart 10-3P chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum equipment required to fly the DKB9B SID procedure, referring to the BRNAV requirement?

A) DME; GPS or VOR/DME ✓

B) DME; NDB

C) VOR/DME

D) GPS only

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E(LO) 2". An aircraft is planned to fly from the reporting point NORBO (N55°36', W004°46') to Dean Cross DME (DCS) (N54°43', W003°20') along airway T256. Select the appropriate magnetic course(s) and distances(s) to be entered into the navigation flight plan.

A) NORBO - T256 - OSMEG: 144°, 35 NM and OSMEG - T256 - DCS: 136°, 36 NM.

B) NORBO - T256 - DCS: 144°, 68 NM.

C) NORBO - T256 - NGY: 144°, 32 NM and NGY - T256 - DCS: 136°, 39 NM. ✓

D) NORBO - T256 - DCS: 144°, 61 NM. It changes into 136 M along T256 after NGY.

Refer to Stuttgart chart 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the MSA for an approaching aircraft which is following the course 085º when it is 14 NM away from the VOR station?

A) 4600

B) 3900

C) 3400

D) 3300 ✓

Refer to Stuttgart 12-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If you carry out an RNP approach to runway 25 at Stuttgart airport, what will be the distance covered from the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) to the Rwy 25 threshold?

A) 26 NM ✓

B) 12.7 NM

C) 21.3 NM

D) 20.4 NM

Refer to Stuttgart approach charts 11-1, 11-1A, 11-2, 11-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departed from Stuttgart airport on Runway 25, but due to a passenger's serious illness, the pilot decided to turn back and land at Stuttgart airport following the ILS CAT I Rwy 25 approach procedure. Which approach chart should the pilot use ?

A) 11-2A

B) 11-2 ✓

C) 11-1A

D) 11-1

An aircraft certified for CAT IIIB intends to perform an ILS approach at Stuttgart airport on RWY 07. What is the minimum RVR or visibility required to be reported to commence the ILS approach, provided that the aerodrome has no technical problems?

A) RVR 200 m

B) Visibility 550 m

C) RVR 550 m

D) RVR 75 m ✓

Refer to ALICANTE (LEAL) STAR chart 10-2B from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft following the VLC 2N STAR procedure performs an emergency descent, due to cabin depressurization, 20 NM before reaching at BESOR IAF. What is the minimum permitted altitude or FL along the STAR procedure which provides the required obstacle and terrain clearance immediately after the beginning of the emergency descent?

A) 6 110 ft

B) FL80

C) 7 110 ft ✓

D) 6 900 ft

Which statement is correct for an SID which is only RNAV?

A) The RNAV SID can be flown with approved ground-based radio navigation receivers only.

B) The RNAV SID provides several routes that can be flown by different aircraft.

C) The RNAV SID is limited to aircraft fitted with approved RNAV equipment only. ✓

D) The RNAV SID requires a reversionary navigation system to be carried on board.

Refer to Amsterdam chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following statements correctly describes the RNAV SID ANDIK 2F?

A) Turn to track 040° before reaching EHØ2Ø.

B) Turn before EHØ2Ø to track 054º and proceed towards the next point in the FMS (EHØ43). ✓

C) Turn before EHØ2Ø to heading 054º and proceed to intercept radial 015º from PAM VOR.

D) Turn to track 040° after waypoint EHØ2Ø.

The approach plate of a 3D RNAV approach procedure to RWY 23 at Cambridge airport has a Decision Height of 360 ft. What Category and Type of approach is this?

A) No Category & Type A ✓

B) Category I & Type B

C) Category II & Type B

D) Category I & Type A

What is an advantage of using GNSS/FMC equipment in flight?

A) Great circle routes CANNOT be flown without GNSS/FMC equipment.

B) Additional aeronautical information can be stored in the database. ✓

C) Visual Meteorological conditions limitations are reduced.

D) Limitations imposed by the Instrument Flight Rules can be disregarded in uncontrolled airspace.

Refer to figure. A pilot is planning an IFR flight and intends to fly from point LONAM to VENAS via airway L7. In the AIP route remarks, the following note regarding the route exists: LONAM - VENAS CDR 1 Mon-Thu 2300-0700. Decoding the previous note, which statement is correct?

A) It is a conditional route permanently plannable during the mentioned times. ✓

B) During the specified period, this route is NOT available for flight planning.

C) This route CANNOT be used for flight planning, but may be used tactically at the discretion of ATC.

D) It requires aircraft to have Conventional Direct Routing capability.

Refer to VFR chart ED-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Considering the following scenario, select the correct statement. In the Item 8 "FLIGHT RULES" the letter "Z" has been inserted in an ATC flight plan of a VFR departure from the Lahr aerodrome (EDTL, N48 22’ E07 50’). Enroute to the compulsory VFR reporting point "ECHO" in VMC conditions , the pilot requests IFR clearance. The ATC controller verifies the departing aircraft's transponder code, confirms a positive radar identification and provides the IFR clearance with further instructions, with the aircraft still being in VMC at 1500 ft AGL.

A) IFR flight inside class E airspace is NOT allowed.

B) The ATC flight plan should have been filled with the letter I (for IFR) in item 8.

C) When issuing an IFR clearance inside controlled airspace, the ATC controller is responsible for providing terrain separation. ✓

D) In VMC conditions while flying IFR inside controlled airspace the Pilot-in-Command is solely responsible for terrain separation.

Refer to STUTTGART (EDDS) charts 11-1 and 11-1A from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft of approach category 'C' and approach capability LNAV/VNAV and CAT IIIB, expects to perform one of the two ILS approach procedures given onto Rwy 07 at Stuttgart airport (EDDS). What is the lowest RVR or minimum meteorological visibility required to commence any of the two approaches given?

A) An RVR of 550 m

B) An RVR of 300 m

C) An RVR of 200 m ✓

D) A meteorological visibility of 550 m

An aircraft is flying under IFR using its FMS for area navigation and intends to enter a controlled airspace via waypoint OSLEL. The aircraft is cleared to approach OSLEL at 1346Z. The current Estimated Time Overhead (ETO) OSLEL is 1343Z and the pilot decreases the groundspeed accordingly. What is the appropriate way of checking that the new speed is suitable to arrive overhead OSLEL at 1346Z?

A) The FMS will give the crew groundspeed, and the change in groundspeed can be used to adjust the ETO at OSLEL.

B) The FMS will give the crew a distance and groundspeed, which can be used to calculate ETO at OSLEL to check against the clearance.

C) The FMS will give the crew a new ETO at OSLEL, which can be checked against the time in the clearance. ✓

D) The FMS will give the crew a time to run to OSLEL, from which they can confirm the ETO is correct.

Refer to ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is correct regarding the GERVU 1M STAR procedure?

A) It is a RNAV route, and can't be performed with only conventional navigation.

B) It can only be flown with VOR/DME based RNAV, as that is how the waypoints are defined.

C) It can be flown using conventional navigation only.

D) It can be flown using conventional navigation and RNAV. ✓

An aircraft of an IFR flight on a track of 225°(M) has to clear an obstacle of 6 600 ft by 1 500 ft. If the QNH is 1030 hPa and the temperature is ISA -15°C, what is the lowest Flight Level at which the aircraft may fly to clear the obstacle? (Assume 30 ft per hPa)

A) FL90

B) FL110

C) FL100 ✓

D) FL80

Refer to Tromso Chart 10-2H from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft approaching the Tromso aerodrome, Norway (ENTC), has been cleared for an ILS approach to Rwy 19, following the SENJA EIGHT MIKE (SJA 8M) STAR procedure. What are the altitude restrictions from SENJA (SJA) NDB to KVALSUND (KV) NDB?

A) At or above 5 000 ft for the complete STAR procedure.

B) 5 000 ft from SJA to TRO Radial 346, then 4 500 ft to KV.

C) 5 500 ft from SJA to GIMBO, 5 000 ft from GIMBO to TRO Radial 346, then 4 500 ft to KV. ✓

D) 5 500 ft from SJA to GIMBO, 5 000 ft from GIMBO to MACKA, then 4 500 ft to KV.

Refer to E(LO)5 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What must be the highest altitude of an obstacle without affecting the route segment from AKUTI (43°14'N, 008°56'E) to TORTU (43°23'N, 008°58'E) for an aircraft flying on airway A9?

A) 600 ft or less ✓

B) 1 600 ft or less

C) 5 000 ft or less

D) 6 000 ft or less

An aircraft is flying at FL50, where the OAT is ISA +10°C. The QNH given by a meteorological station with an elevation of 1 000 ft AMSL is 990 hPa. Calculate the approximate true altitude of the aircraft. (Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A) 4 442 ft ✓

B) 4 178 ft

C) 4 310 ft

D) 5 918 ft

Refer to figure. After the pre-flight preparation, the flight plan log shown in the annex was completed, taking into account the meteorological conditions for the scheduled Estimated Time of Departure at 07:30 UTC. Due to the passage of a cold front, a delay is expected for 3 hours. What will be the revised Groundspeed between WPT B and WPT C because of the expected delay?

A) 164 knots

B) 155 knots ✓

C) 181 knots

D) 149 knots

Refer to figure. After the pre-flight preparation, the flight plan log shown in the annex was completed, taking into account the meteorological conditions for the scheduled Estimated Time of Departure at 08:00 UTC. Due to unforeseen reasons, a delay is expected for 3 hours. What will be the revised Groundspeed between WPT A and WPT B because of the expected delay?

A) 207 knots

B) 191 knots ✓

C) 169 knots

D) 173 knots

Refer to Aberdeen Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Radar Minimum Altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic bearing of 100° from the Aberdeen aerodrome (EGPD) and at a distance of 13 NM from the aerodrome?

A) 4 100 ft

B) 2 800 ft

C) 2 500 ft ✓

D) 2 300 ft

Refer to Stuttgart SID chart 10-3P from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft taking-off from Stuttgart has received clearance for the DKB4H RNAV SID. Traditional IFR equipment is required to continue the flight in case the GNSS integrity is lost. Which of the following equipment must be available in order to execute the RNAV SID? 1. Aircraft VOR and DME receivers 2. Aircraft GPS receivers 3. Aircraft ADF receiver 4. STG and LBU navigational aids 5. STG and DKB navigational aids

A) 1, 2, and 5 ✓

B) 2 only

C) 2, 3, and 4

D) 1, 3, and 4

Refer to E(LO)6 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are doing a VFR flight from VALENCIA (VLC) VOR/DME (39°29'N, 000°29'W) to ALMERIA (AMR) VOR/DME (36°49'N, 002°15'W). The LE(R)-63 is not activated and you choose to fly an ATS conditional route. What is the best route?

A) VLC - A34 - ALT - W810 - VSJ - W820 - AMR

B) VLC - B28 - R47- BLN - M192 - AMR

C) VLC - G850 - AMR ✓

D) VLC - A34 - ALT - D - AMR

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the section where ADN VOR/DME is located?

A) 1700 ft AAL

B) 2300 ft

C) 1700 ft AMSL ✓

D) 1700 m

Refer to figure. You experience a total RNAV system failure enroute to your destination, Amsterdam Schiphol aerodrome. During descent, Schiphol Arrival assigns you the NORKU 2A arrival. Can you accept this STAR?

A) Yes, if you given vectors to OSKUR.

B) You can follow NORKU 2A because it is a conventional STAR.

C) No, because it is an RNAV STAR. However, you can request REKKEN 2A.

D) No, because it is an RNAV STAR. ✓

The minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) value to be applied in the primary area of a mountainous area during the en-route phase of an IFR flight is:

A) If variation in terrain elevation is less than 5 000 ft: 2 000 ft, if variation is greater than 5 000 ft: 1 500 ft.

B) Always 2 000 ft.

C) If variation in terrain elevation is less than 5 000 ft: 1 500 ft, if variation is greater than 5 000 ft: 2 000 ft. ✓

D) Always 1 000 ft.

Refer to Stuttgart (EDDS) 10-3P Chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft receives clearance for departure via DKB 9B SID. What is the best navigational equipment to fly the route?

A) VOR

B) NDB

C) GPS ✓

D) DME

LPV gives (1)_ guidance with the performance of a localizer, and the protected area is (2)_.

A) (1) Vertical; (2) Smaller

B) (1) Lateral; (2) Smaller ✓

C) (1) Vertical; (2) Greater

D) (1) Lateral; (2) Greater

Refer to Stuttgart (EDDS) 10-3P chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Before departure from Rwy 25 of the Stuttgart (EDDS) aerodrome, the message "GPS INOP" appears on your GNSS display. What SID should be followed in this case?

A) Conventional departure DKB 4H.

B) Conventional departure DKB 9B. ✓

C) RNAV departure DKB 4H.

D) RNAV departure DKB 9B.

An aircraft is flying under IFR using its FMS for area navigation. According to its FMS, the Estimated Time Over (ETO) a waypoint is 1443, but ATC has cleared the aircraft at 1446. After decreasing the groundspeed accordingly, what is the appropriate way of checking that the new speed is suitable to arrive overhead the waypoint at 1446?

A) The FMS will give a new GS which can be compared against the ATC clearance.

B) The FMS gives a new speed and distance which can be used to calculate the ETO.

C) The FMS gives a new transit time for the leg, which can be used to calculate the ETO.

D) The FMS will give a new ETO which can be compared against the ATC clearance. ✓

An aircraft follows an IFR route between two airports. If one of the flight segments along the route has the following limiting altitudes specified below, how can the pilot correctly apply them? MEA: 4500 ft MOCA: 1500 ft

A) Use the MOCA value as the minimum safe altitude within the dimensions of the route and MEA if flying within 25 NM of the route centreline.

B) Plan to fly between 2 000 ft and 4 000 ft in order to remain within the protected and authorised dimensions of the route segment.

C) Use the MEA value as the minimum altitude to achieve the required obstacle clearance for IFR flight as the MOCA value is for VFR flight.

D) Plan to fly at 5 000 ft or above to clear obstacles and to have adequate reception of radio navigation aids and communications. ✓

Refer to Aberdeen (EGPD) 11-1 Chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) overhead the IAF ABERDEEN (ADN) VOR?

A) 3 000 ft

B) 4 100 ft

C) 2 300 ft

D) 2 500 ft ✓

Refer to Tromso (ENTC) 10-2 and 10-2H charts from the Jeppesen GSRPM 2017. For an aircraft cleared for approach to runway 19 at Tromso (ENTC) aerodrome following the SJA 8M STAR procedure, which one of the following statements is correct?

A) The minimum altitude is 5 500 ft from SJA to MACKA and then reduces to 5 000 ft.

B) The minimum altitude is 5 000 ft for the entire arrival route.

C) The minimum altitude is 5 500 ft from SJA to GIBMO, 5 000 ft from GIBMO until TR0 304° radial and reduces to 4 500 ft at TRO 304° radial.

D) The minimum altitude is 5 500 ft from SJA to GIBMO, 5 000 ft from GIBMO until TRO 346° radial and reduces to 4 500 ft at TRO 346° radial. ✓

Refer to Alicante (LEAL) chart 13-4 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is approaching aerodrome Alicante (LEAL) following the 243° radial onto the ALT VOR/DME and receives clearance for the VOR Y Rwy 28 procedure. What is the Minimum Safe (Sector) Altitude (MSA)?

A) 6 900 ft

B) 3 500 ft

C) 5 900 ft ✓

D) 3 000 ft

What is the vertical distance flown for a climb from a departure aerodrome with elevation 3 500 ft and QNH 1030 hPa until a cruise altitude at FL250? (Assume 30 ft per 1 hPa)

A) 24 500 ft

B) 22 000 ft ✓

C) 29 000 ft

D) 25 500 ft

What Type and Category of approach is a 2D APCH with a MDH of 350 ft?

A) Type B, no category.

B) Type A, no category. ✓

C) Type A, CAT I.

D) Type B, Cat II.

What is the difference between an LNAV and an LP approach to the same runway?

A) LP follows the Localiser Performance standards, which requires additional equipment on board the aircraft, beyond the standard GNSS. ✓

B) LNAV offers both lateral and vertical guidance.

C) LP is a 3D approach, similar to VNAV.

D) There is no significant difference as both use GNSS as reference, so the pilot may choose the one with lowest minima.

What statement below is correct regarding the difference between an RNAV STAR and an RNAV STAR overlay?

A) An RNAV STAR overlay will have a longer route distance than an RNAV STAR as it has less constraints.

B) An RNAV STAR overlay CANNOT follow the same route as a STAR that is defined by ground based navigation aids.

C) An RNAV STAR overlay will follow the same route as a STAR that is defined by ground based navigation aids. ✓

D) An RNAV STAR overlay will have a shorter route distance than an RNAV STAR as it has less constraints.

Refer to figure. An aircraft is to fly a conventional ATS route at FL170 from WUR (N49 43.1 E009 56.8) to DRN (N51 00.9 E013 35.9). Which of the following could be the route?

A) WUR ERL LEG DRN

B) WUR GOT LEG DRN

C) WUR BAY OKG DRN ✓

D) WUR BAROM MADAX DRN

Refer to E(LO)2 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A pilot is planning an IFR flight from NORBO (N55°36' W004°46') to Dean Cross DME (DCS, N54°43' W003°20') via airway T256. Select the corresponding distances which should be entered in the navigation flight plan.

A) NORBO - 35NM - OSMEG - 36NM - DEAN CROSS ✓

B) NORBO - 35 NM - OSMEG - 19 NM - DEAN CROSS

C) NORBO - 32 NM - OSMEG - 39 NM - DEAN CROSS

D) NORBO - 36 NM - OSMEG - 35 NM - DEAN CROSS

Which one of the following is a type B approach? 1. GNSS 3D with GBAS. 2. GNSS 3D with ABAS only. 3. GNSS LNAV with GBAS. 4. GNSS LNAV with ABAS only.

A) 3 and 4.

B) 1 only. ✓

C) 2 only.

D) 1 and 2.

Refer to Stuttgart 10-3C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which equipment is NOT required to perform the two SIDs depicted on the chart?

A) STG ground navigational aid

B) Aircraft DME receiver

C) Aircraft VOR receiver

D) Aircraft GPS receiver ✓

Which of the following is(are) Type B approach(es)? 1. ILS DH = 230 ft 2. VOR DH = 250 ft 3. VOR DH = 270 ft

A) 1 only. ✓

B) 2 and 3 only.

C) 1 and 3 only.

D) 1 and 2 only.

Refer to Tromso, Norway (ENTC) SID chart 10-3F from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft has been cleared to depart Tromso runway 01 to follow the AMIMO 1A RNAV SID. What waypoints must be programmed into the RNAV system and what are the speed restrictions for this SID?

A) TC604, ROSKO, and AMIMO with a maximum speed restriction of 230 kt to TC603.

B) TC603, TC604, ROSKO, and AMIMO with a maximum speed restriction of 230 kt to TC604. ✓

C) TC603, TC684, ROSKO, and AMIMO with a maximum speed restriction of 250 kt to TC684.

D) TC683, TC604, ROSKO, GILGU and AMIMO with a maximum speed restriction of 230 kt to TC604.

Refer to ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is fully P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 10?

A) SOPET 1G

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A ✓

D) MITOS 1C

Refer to ALICANTE charts 11-1, 11-2, 13-1, 13-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have followed Alicante arrival ASTRO 1L which leads to reporting point VILNA. Which approaches can you use from there?

A) ILS Y and VOR Y.

B) ILS Z and VOR Z. ✓

C) ILS Y and VOR Z.

D) ILS Z and VOR Y.

What is the difference between an RNAV STAR and RNAV STAR overlay?

A) The RNAV STAR overlay permits pilots to fly a conventional STAR procedure using GNSS equipment. ✓

B) The RNAV STAR overlay will follow a different route from the conventional STAR procedure.

C) The RNAV STAR overlay is a shorter route than the RNAV STAR.

D) The RNAV STAR overlay is a longer route than the RNAV STAR.

Which of the following is(are) Type A approach(es)? 1. ILS with DH: 270 ft 2. VOR with MDH: 250 ft 3. VOR with MDH: 200 ft 4. ILS with DH: 140 ft

A) 3 and 4.

B) 1 and 3.

C) 1 and 2. ✓

D) 2 only.

Refer to Amsterdam 10-3V chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The MSA is...

A) 1 700 ft clockwise between Radials 297° and 176°.

B) 1 700 ft clockwise between Radials 176° and 297°.

C) 1 700 ft clockwise between Radials 177° and 130°. ✓

D) 2 300 ft clockwise between Radials 117° and 356°.

Which of the following is a description of a conventional non-precision approach in its most basic form that uses only ground-based facilities as reference? A non-precision approach has lateral...

A) And vertical guidance provided by an FMS.

B) Guidance only that may be referenced from a localiser or a VOR. ✓

C) And vertical guidance referenced from facilities such as ILS, MLS and GLS.

D) Guidance referenced from a facility such as VOR and vertical guidance from the aircraft FMS.

Refer to E(LO)6 chart from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A helicopter wants to join an airway via waypoint DOPEL (N38°32' E008°52') and fly at 178° on FL70. What kind of airway is this?

A) Conditional route

B) P-RNAV

C) RNAV route

D) Non RNAV-route ✓

What will be the effect of an incorrect cruise level entry into the FMC?

A) There will be NO effect as the FMC will make an automatic correction.

B) The aircraft will NOT be able to reach the ATC assigned cruise level.

C) The incorrect entry will be detected and the input will be prevented.

D) The FMC will calculate incorrect speeds, times and fuel flows. ✓

After an approach at your destination, the weather is found to be below limits, and you decide to divert to your alternate aerodrome. During initial climb you notice that the leading-edge devices are not completely retracted. After completing all necessary actions to deal with this abnormal condition, you check the FMS for ETA and fuel remaining at the diversion aerodrome. Based on the above, you can...

A) Use both the FMS time and fuel predictions.

B) NOT use any of the FMS time or fuel predictions.

C) NOT use the FMS time predictions, but you can use the FMS fuel predictions.

D) Use the FMS time predictions, but you can NOT use the fuel predictions. ✓

An aircraft on a track of 240º(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 26 500 ft with a clearance of 2 000 ft. The QNH is 1 003 hPa and OAT is ISA + 10º C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL320

C) FL280

D) FL300 ✓

During an IFR flight at an altitude of 3 300 ft and a transition altitude at 3 000 ft. Given that the current QNH is 991 hPa, the OAT at an aerodrome with an elevation of 179 ft is +8°C, the magnetic track is 182º and the variation is 4ºW, what is the minimum flight level the aircraft can be flown at?

A) FL45

B) FL40

C) FL50

D) FL60 ✓

Determine the lowest usable flight level for an IFR flight provided that the MOCA is 3 300 ft and the transition altitude is 3 000 ft, given: QNH: 1020 hPa Temperature: -7°C The airport elevation is: 27 ft Magnetic course: 182° Variation: 8°E

A) FL45

B) FL40 ✓

C) FL50

D) FL60

Refer to Jeppesen Stuttgart RNAV SID 10-3P chart. On DKB 9B SID, what does DSØ5Ø indicate?

A) Fly-by point.

B) Fly-over point. ✓

C) Compulsory reporting point.

D) Non-compulsory reporting point.

Given the following data, what is the TAS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: -40°C Mach number : M 0.82 Wind component : -42 kt

A) 452 kt

B) 440 kt

C) 460 kt

D) 488 kt ✓

Refer to figures and/or to chart E(LO)13 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are planning a flight from Ajaccio (LFKJ) to Marina di Campo (LIRJ), routing along airways A9 and L146. Extract the information from the chart and complete the navigation plan. What will be the total distance and estimated flight time?

A) 135 nm and 52 minutes

B) 123 nm and 57 minutes ✓

C) 18 nm and 7 minutes

D) 118 nm and 55 minutes

What is a non-precision approach?

A) An instrument procedure with 3D guidance, type A.

B) An instrument procedure with 2D guidance, type A. ✓

C) An instrument procedure (ILS, MLS, GLS, GNSS with SBAS), either type A or B.

D) A PBN approach procedure.

During a flight, a pilot decides to make an unplanned diversion due to passenger illness. The route to the alternate requires them to turn 90 degrees away from the planned track and fly for 50 nm. What altitude should the pilot choose to ensure a safe clearance from terrain and man-made structures?

A) MORA, because it provides clearance over terrain and man-made structures on either side of the route centreline up to 2000 ft.

B) GRID MORA only provides a clearance of 1000 ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5000 ft MSL or lower.

C) Grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude (GRID MORA), because it provides clearance from terrain and man-made obstacles over a wider area. ✓

D) Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA).

Refer to figures or to Stuttgart charts 10-3C and 10-3P from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Stuttgart Delivery has approved you to depart via the RNAV SID "DKB 9B". Which chart must you use?

A) Both charts use conventional navigation

B) Both charts are RNAV

C) 10-3P ✓

D) 10-3C

What is the difference between the Grid MORA and the Route MORA?

A) The Grid MORA cannot be used when flying off a published airway, but the Route MORA can be.

B) The Route MORA provides sufficient terrain clearance 10 nm each side of the route, the grid MORA provides sufficient terrain clearance for a particular segment of the latitude/longitude grid. ✓

C) The Route MORA only ever provides 1000 ft clearance with the highest terrain, whereas the Grid MORA provides 2000 ft terrain clearance over mountainous areas.

D) The Route MORA provides sufficient terrain clearance 5 nm on each side of the route, the Grid MORA provides it out to 25 nm in each direction from the route.

An aircraft is flying VFR in mountainous terrain with the highest obstacle in the region having an elevation of 7 220 ft. The weather deteriorates and the aircraft has to go IFR and climb to a safe level. Given the following information, what is the minimum usable IFR flight level, complying with the semi-circular rule and providing the required 2 000 ft obstacle clearance? OAT = ISA -10ºC QNH (provided from an airport close to sea level) = 990 hPa Track = 175º(M) Magnetic variation 15ºE Drift: 8º left Assume 30 ft/hPa

A) FL120

B) FL110 ✓

C) FL100

D) FL90

Given the following information, Calculate the drift and groundspeed: True Track = 020º TAS = 180 kt W/V = 060º(T)/30 kt

A) Drift = 6º left; GS = 158 kt

B) Drift = 8º left; GS = 161 kt

C) Drift = 7º left; GS = 158 kt

D) Drift = 6º left; GS = 156 kt ✓

Refer to figure. By completing the navigation plan in the annex above, what will be the planned total time for the whole route?

A) 31 minutes

B) 62 minutes

C) 57 minutes ✓

D) 26 minutes

Refer to figure or to chart E(LO) 2 from the GSPRM 2017. An aircraft position is (53º40'N, 1º15'W). Determine the aircraft's radials from Manchester (MCT) VOR and Trent (TNT) VOR.

A) MCT: 025, TNT: 063

B) MCT: 244, TNT: 204

C) MCT: 065, TNT: 024 ✓

D) MCT: 061, TNT: 020

The ICAO PBN Manual (Doc. 9613) defines a set of navigation specifications for different airspace concepts. Where may a pilot encounter the specification RNP AR APCH?

A) A route or part of a route that is airway-regulated.

B) Approaches that require a specific authorisation to fly. ✓

C) En-route segments requiring augmented navigation capability.

D) En-route and approach segments requiring augmented navigation capability.

Refer to figure or use CAP 697 Figure 3.4. An aeroplane is flying at FL90 at the economy power setting. What is the TAS if the OAT is ISA +10ºC?

A) 160 kt

B) 145 kt

C) 175 kt ✓

D) 170 kt

An aircraft is following a route outside controlled airspace where the MOCA is 3300 ft and the transition altitude is 3000 ft. Given the following information, what is the minimum flight level for the aircraft in IFR? Magnetic Track: 182° Magnetic Variation: 8°W Nearby Aerodrome Elevation: 27 ft Nearby Aerodrome QNH: 991 hPa Nearby Aerodrome Temperature: -7°C

A) FL70

B) FL60 ✓

C) FL50

D) FL45

Determine the lowest usable flight level for an IFR flight provided that the MOCA is 3 300 ft and the transition altitude is 3 000 ft, given: QNH: 991 hPa Temperature: -7°C The airport elevation is: 27 ft Magnetic course: 182° Variation: 8°E

A) FL45

B) FL50

C) FL60 ✓

D) FL40

An aircraft is flying at FL350. A nearby airport at an elevation 1 120 ft reports a QNH of 1020 hPa, and a temperature deviation of ISA -20ºC. What is the difference in values between the aircraft's pressure altitude and its true altitude?

A) 4 550 ft

B) 2 930 ft

C) 1 100 ft

D) 2 520 ft ✓

Refer to figure. An aircraft is departing following ANDIK 2F SID from Amsterdam with an aircraft with RNAV equipment fully operational. The aircraft should...

A) Use EH019, EH20, EH43 radio signals.

B) Use VOR SPL and intercept PAM radial.

C) Turn by waypoints input in the FMC. ✓

D) Turn as directed by ATC.

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What type of approach lights are present for the ILS RW 06 into Amsterdam?

A) Threshold lights.

B) PAPIs

C) Runway lead-in lights.

D) A high-intensity system. ✓

Refer to figure or to Dubrovnik Chart 19-10 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying a Cat C A320, which initial magnetic track do you follow after CAVTAT NDB?

A) 295º

B) 115º

C) 158º ✓

D) 148º

An aircraft on a track of 240º(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2 000 ft. The QNH is 1 033 hPa and OAT is ISA + 10º C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL320

C) FL280

D) FL300 ✓

An aircraft on a track of 130º(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 26 500 ft with a clearance of 2 000 ft. The QNH is 1003 hPa and OAT is ISA -15ºC. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310 ✓

B) FL290

C) FL320

D) FL300

An aircraft is flying at FL80, where the OAT is ISA - 18° C. The QNH given by a meteorological station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 1020 hPa. Calculate the approximate True Altitude of the aircraft. Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft.

A) 8 780 ft

B) 8 210 ft

C) 7 640 ft ✓

D) 7 735 ft

What Type and Category of approach is a 3D APCH with a MDH of 340 ft?

A) Type B, no category.

B) Type A, no category. ✓

C) Type A, CAT I.

D) Type B, Cat II.

Which PBN approach, among the following, aligns with this description? A 3D approach with vertical guidance (APV), like a conventional ILS but using GNSS augmented by SBAS. No barometric input is used.

A) LNAV

B) LPV ✓

C) LP

D) LNAV / VNAV

A particular GNSS RNP APCH chart for a runway has two types of published minima, LNAV and LP. Which of the following options accurately describes the minima?

A) The LNAV minima are based on horizontal and vertical guidance being provided on board the aircraft.

B) The LP minima apply to a 3D precision approach with both horizontal and vertical guidance, similar to VNAV.

C) The LP minima are based on Localiser Performance requiring equipment beyond a standard GNSS receiver in the aircraft. ✓

D) There is NO difference as both use GNSS as reference throughout the procedure and the pilot may choose the lowest minima.

Refer to figure or to STUTTGART (EDDS) SID 10-3D from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. B-RNAV equipment required to follow ETASA 4B:

A) For guidance to KOVAN and ETASA. ✓

B) To know when to start the turn to KOVAN.

C) To identify the overhead position at ETASA.

D) To comply with the minimum climb gradient of 4%.

Refer to figure or to STUTTGART (EDDS) chart 12-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are following the RNP Rwy 25 approach and are capable and authorised to fly to the LNAV/VNAV minima. What restrictions, if any, apply to this procedure?

A) NO restrictions exist.

B) NO vertical guidance exists for this procedure.

C) The approach can only be flown by approach category A or category B aircraft.

D) The temperature must be at or above -15° C if the aircraft uses Baro-VNAV only. ✓

Refer to figure or to Stuttgart (EDDS) chart 12-2 RNP Rwy 25 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The LNAV/VNAV decision altitude for the RNP approach to runway 25 for aircraft approach categories A, B or C is:

A) 409 ft

B) 1 590 ft ✓

C) 1590 m

D) 1 620 ft

Refer to figure. Determine the TAS if the aeroplane's weight is 67 500 kg and it is flying at FL370 with an OAT of -36° C:

A) 254 kt

B) 463 kt ✓

C) 250 kt

D) 469 kt

An aircraft on a track of 130º(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 26500 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1003 hPa and OAT is ISA - 10ºC. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310 ✓

B) FL290

C) FL320

D) FL300

You are flying an ILS approach with a course of 245º(M) and an approach speed of 115 kt. The tower gives a wind of 280º/18 kt. In order to maintain the approach track, the nose of the aircraft has to be corrected (1)_ with a corresponding groundspeed of (2)_.

A) (1) 5° to the left; (2) 133 kt

B) (1) 5° to the right; (2) 100 kt ✓

C) (1) 6° to the right; (2) 129 kt

D) (1) 6° to the left; (2) 108 kt

Refer to figures or to Stuttgart charts 10-3P and 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. The pilot is advised by ATC to expect either DKB 9B RNAV SID (OVERLAY) or DKB 9B SID. Which of the following applies to DKB 9B RNAV SID (OVERLAY)?

A) It requires the on-board ADF to be serviceable.

B) It requires both the pilots and the aircraft to have an RNAV 1 certification.

C) It may be flown only with reference to VOR and DME.

D) It utilises on-board GPS to fly the DKB 9B SID. ✓

As per ICAO Doc. 8168 (PANS-OPS) Volume 1, when an IFR flight is being radar vectored, ATC will assign altitudes which...

A) must be at least 1000 ft above minimum sector altitude, calculated out to 25 nm in all directions from the Aerodrome Reference Point.

B) must not be below the minimum sector altitude.

C) may be below the minimum sector altitude. ✓

D) must be at or above the minimum sector altitude.

Refer to figure or STUTTGART (EDDS) chart 11-1 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A pilot is under radar vectors in order to position for an ILS approach to runway 07. ATC clears the aircraft to descend to 4 000 ft on a heading of 105º to establish on and follow the ILS. Suddenly a complete electrical failure occurs and all navigation instruments are lost except for the standby compass. If the aircraft is in cloud, what is a safe altitude for the pilot to maintain while trying to restore the navigation instruments?

A) 4 600 ft as this is the highest MSA around the airport. ✓

B) 4 000 ft as this is the platform altitude for the ILS approach.

C) 3 300 ft as the aircraft is probably within 15 NM of STG VOR.

D) 1 467 ft as this is the minima for the CAT I ILS being flown.

A crew is to fly across the Himalayas, and the most efficient level to fly at is FL290. What is the approximate minimum terrain clearance at FL290 given the following meteorological information? Elevation of highest terrain close to intended routing: 25460 ft Outside air temperature at FL290: -60°C QNH reported by nearby station close to sea level: 982 hPa

A) 1 450 ft

B) 2 230 ft

C) 680 ft ✓

D) 2 700 ft

Refer to Alicante chart 11-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is flying outbound on radial 298 from ALT VOR and exceeds the MAX speed for the base turn. From the following, what could be the possible result?

A) The turn radius will decrease and aircraft will fly closer to the airport.

B) A risk of undershooting the baseturn, ending up too high before final approach fix.

C) A risk of overshooting the baseturn, ending up too high before final approach fix.

D) The turn radius will increase and aircraft will fly close to terrain west of the airport. ✓

An aircraft on a track of 240°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 26 500 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1013 hPa and OAT is ISA + 10°C. What is the minimum Flight Level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL320

B) FL310

C) FL300 ✓

D) FL290

Which of the following is(are) Type A approach(es)? 1. ILS with MDH = 270 ft 2. VOR with MDH = 250 ft 3. ILS with MDH < 250 ft

A) 2 and 3.

B) Only 3.

C) 1 and 3.

D) 1 and 2. ✓

Refer to figure. Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-3Q from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the difference between EHØ48 and EHØ8Ø?

A) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for B737. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-over waypoint.

B) EHØ8Ø and EHØ48 are both used by B737, other aircraft only use EHØ48.

C) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for all aircraft.

D) EHØ8Ø is a fly-over waypoint for B737 only. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-by waypoint. ✓

Refer to figure. Which of the following is the frequency of Ibiza NDB?

A) IBA 117.8 kHz

B) IBA 117.8 MHz

C) IZA 394 MHz

D) IZA 394 kHz ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL80, with a restriction to maintain 2 000 ft until passing ALT VOR. The QNH is 1040 hPa, the aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 10 NM before ASTRO

B) 6 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM before VILNA ✓

D) 1 NM after VILNA

Refer to ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You lose engine power at 6500 ft over GERVU as you approach for runway 10. Which IAF will ATC likely give you?

A) ALICANTE (ATE)

B) ALTET (ALT) IAF ✓

C) BESOR IAF

D) VILNA IAF

What is an advantage of using GNSS FMC equipment in flight?

A) There is NO need for a route check as this is an automatic function.

B) The aircraft systems require less data from the Air Data Computer.

C) The aircraft's position can be continuously displayed. ✓

D) In-flight weather is more easily detected and avoided.

An aircraft is flying at 2600 ft with altimeter set to 1000 hPa (QNH of an nearby airfield at 600 ft). Considering that the air mass at that airfield is on average 8°C warmer than standard, calculate the aircraft's true altitude over the field.

A) 2520 ft

B) 2595 ft

C) 2760 ft

D) 2664 ft ✓

What is an ILS CAT I approach with a DH of 340 ft?

A) Type B 3D approach.

B) Type B 2D approach.

C) Type A 3D approach. ✓

D) Type A 2D approach.

Refer to figure. The figure shows a partially completed navigation plan from Ajaccio aerodrome (LFKJ) in Corsica with elevation 17 ft. If your rate of climb is 925 ft/min, at what distance from AJO will you reach FL130?

A) 24 NM

B) 22 NM

C) 20 NM ✓

D) 18 NM

What does "BIMON CDR 1 DUMBO 17:00-23:00" mean?

A) FIS route.

B) Conditional RNAV route.

C) Permanently plannable CDR during designated times. ✓

D) Permanently unplannable CDR during designated times.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have been requested to perform a flight overflying the Rennes VOR (REN) (N48°04' W001°45') and the BOLRO waypoint (N50°00' W001°42'). Which airway would you file in your flight plan?

A) UN862

B) UT507

C) UP87 ✓

D) UY110

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) at IAF for Runway 28 from VLC VOR?

A) 5 900 ft

B) FL100

C) 6 500 ft ✓

D) FL70

Refer to Amsterdam- chart 16-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following are approach lights provided for Amsterdam RWY 18C?

A) Standard ALSF II

B) HIALS ✓

C) PAPIS

D) HIALS Calvert II

Refer to figure. (For this question use the chart "E(LO) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). A route connects the waypoint AMGAR (42°33'18.40"N, 003°15'12.00"W) with TABANERA VOR (42°01'39.00"N, 004°06'33.00"W). What kind of route is this?

A) Conditional ATS route.

B) RNAV ATS route. ✓

C) Direct ATS route.

D) ATS route used by non B-RNAV equipped aircraft.

Given the following information, what is the Ground Speed of the aircraft? TAS: 150 kt Heading: 090 Wind: 030/50 kt

A) 109 kt.

B) 139 kt.

C) 129 kt. ✓

D) 119 kt.

Refer to ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is not P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 10?

A) SOPET 1G ✓

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C

Refer to ALICANTE charts 11-1, 11-2, 13-1, 13-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have followed Alicante arrival RESTU 1Q which leads to the initial approach fix ALTET. Which approaches can you use from there?

A) ILS Y and VOR Y. ✓

B) ILS Z and VOR Z.

C) ILS Y and VOR Z.

D) ILS Z and VOR Y.

Refer to figure or GSPRM Alicante (LEAL) STAR 10-2C. While briefing the GERVU 1M STAR, if the training captain asks about the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) from GERVU, the correct response is…

A) FL75 ✓

B) 6900 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 4000 ft

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial true course from KEFLAVÍK (BIKF, N63°59.1' W022°36.3') to AMSTERDAM (EHAM, N52°18.5′ E004°45.8′)?

A) 110°

B) 103°

C) 122°

D) 116° ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". On a flight on airway P600 you are passing TURNBERRY VOR (TRN, N55°19' W004°47') and intersections GIRVA, TUNSO and BLACA. What is the MEA between GIRVA and TUNSO?

A) 5000 ft

B) 6000 ft

C) FL60 ✓

D) FL70

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial magnetic course from BENBECULA (N57°27.9' W007°23') to KEFLAVÍK (N63°59.1' W022°36.3')?

A) 303º

B) 302º

C) 322º ✓

D) 317º

Refer to chart E(LO)2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic bearing and distance from Trent (TNT) VOR/DME (53°03'N 001°40'W) to waypoint TIMPO (52°33'N 001°10'W).

A) 149°M / 35 NM ✓

B) 329°M / 25 NM

C) 149°M / 25 NM

D) 329°M / 35 NM

An aircraft on a track of 204°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1033 hPa and OAT is ISA + 20°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL320

C) FL280

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is fully P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 28?

A) SOPET 1G

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C ✓

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category A aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 352 ft

C) RVR 1500 m

D) RVR 800 m ✓

Refer to figure. When should a temperature error correction be applied to an approach?

A) Between -10ºC and -15ºC

B) Colder than -10ºC

C) Between 0ºC and -10ºC ✓

D) Warmer than -10ºC

Refer to AMSTERDAM 10-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from MUNSTER Airport and is heading west. The aircraft experiences a critical fuel situation and cannot return to its departure airport. The crew decide to land at Amsterdam Airport. Which STAR should the crew expect? Choose the shortest STARs and the ones closest to the departure airport.

A) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2A ✓

B) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2B

C) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2A

D) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2B

A pilot is being vectored in controlled airspace and is told to descend below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but not below the Minimum Radar Vectoring Altitude (MRVA). What should the pilot do?

A) Follow the commands of the controller ONLY if the commander thinks it is safe regarding terrain separation. ✓

B) Follow the commands of the controller who is fully responsible for terrain separation.

C) Turn around and leave the controlled airspace.

D) Declare an emergency and climb back to MSA.

Refer to figures or AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Paris to AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) but due to operational limitations, they are taking all approaches from the west. Which routes should you use?

A) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PESER 2A, PUTTY 1A

B) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A ✓

C) TOPPA 2A

D) REKKEN 2A, REKKEN 2B, NORKU 2A, NORKU 2B

Refer to STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: D Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the track and distance from AMGAR to Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) 070° / 50 NM

B) 045° / 30 NM

C) 059° / 40 NM

D) 059° / 20 NM ✓

The ATC instructs the pilot of an aircraft flying in IMC and over mountainous terrain to descend from FL100 to FL70. The temperature is ISA +15°C and the QNH, reported from a nearby airfield with an elevation of 300 ft, is 975 hPa. What is the true altitude at FL70 that the pilot must use to confirm a safe terrain clearance before descending to the new flight level? Use 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 6195 ft ✓

B) 5530 ft

C) 7810 ft

D) 5860 ft

When must a pilot apply corrections due to temperature variations?

A) When the temperature is below ISA -15 ✓

B) When the temperature is over ISA +15

C) When the temperature is between ISA -5 and ISA +5

D) When the temperature is ISA +15

Refer to E(LO)-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are completing a low level flight over the sea and have just turned south towards land. Which frequency should you call overhead GOLVO (N54°25′ E003°38′)?

A) London 134.25

B) Scottish 121.32

C) Dutch Mil 128.335

D) Amsterdam Info 119.17 ✓

When should a temperature correction be applied to the altitude at the IAF to provide adequate terrain clearance?

A) when the temperature at the runway surface is significantly higher than ISA

B) when the temperature at the top of descent is higher than ISA

C) when the temperature at the top of cruise is lower than ISA

D) when the temperature at the airport is significantly lower than ISA ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - charts 10-2B, 13-2, 13-3, 13-4, 13-5 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which approaches can be made from a CALLES 2N / VALENCIA 2N STAR?

A) VOR Y RWY 28; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

B) VOR Y RWY 10; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR Y RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

C) VOR Z; VOR X; VOR Y

D) VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28 ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing the AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) at 0600 hrs to Aberdeen joining P600 at BUDON. Which frequency do you call after departure?

A) Aberdeen 119.05 ✓

B) Aberdeen 134.10

C) Scottish 125.72

D) Aberdeen 128.30

An airway in mountainous terrain is designed so that the lowest level is above the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA). What is the approximate minimum clearance used in calculating the MOCA?

A) 1000 ft clearance over obstacles up to and including 5000 ft; and 2000 ft clearance for obstacles over 5000 ft in elevation. ✓

B) 1500 ft for all mountainous terrain.

C) 1500 ft for terrain elevations less than 5000 ft; 2000 ft for terrain elevations greater than 5000 ft.

D) 1000 ft for all mountainous terrain.

Refer to figure. Which approach lighting system is installed at Runway 21?

A) CAT III.

B) CAT II.

C) CAT I with barrette at the center. ✓

D) Simple approach light.

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If you take off from Valence (LFLU, N44°55' E004°58′) and head south to join airway B16 via VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47'), which sector would you be in contact with?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32 ✓

An IFR flight has been given descent instructions below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation?

A) The Controller and the PIC should accept the routing.

B) The Controller and the PIC should not accept the routing.

C) The PIC and the PIC should accept the routing.

D) The PIC and the routing should not be accepted. ✓

Refer to Tromso, Norway (ENTC) SID chart 10-3A from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. According to your calculations, your aircraft can climb with a gradient of 6.5% up to 4000 ft. Considering your aircraft's performance, which route should you take when departing from Tromso?

A) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 210 kt up to TC704 ✓

B) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707 then 210 kt up to TC704

C) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC708

D) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707

During the preparation of an IFR flight, the track indicated between two VOR stations on the IFR map is 137°. The applicable variation is 6°E. The reported wind is 210°/25 kt. The planned cruising speed for this leg is 175 kt. To keep the track, the wind correction angle is (1) _. The corresponding groundspeed is (2) _.

A) (1) 8° to the left; (2) 183 kt

B) (1) 14° to the left; (2) 181 kt

C) (1) 2° to the right; (2) 166 kt

D) (1) 8° to the right; (2) 164 kt ✓

Given an LNAV/VNAV approach with a temperature deviation of ISA -15, a charted Decision Altitude (DA) of 530 ft, and a Decision Height (DH) of approximately 432 ft, calculate the new Decision Altitude.

A) Around 430 ft

B) 530 ft

C) 550 ft

D) Higher than 550 ft ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which sector would you be in contact with when flying overhead VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47')?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90 ✓

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32

Given the following data, what is the TAS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: ISA -10 C Mach Number: M 0.77 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 430 kt ✓

B) 420 kt

C) 450 kt

D) 460 kt

A pilot is being radar vectored in controlled airspace below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation and what should the commander do?

A) Commander is responsible and commander should always accept.

B) ATC is responsible and commander should always accept.

C) Commander is responsible for terrain separation and commander should accept.

D) ATC is responsible and commander should reject instruction if it is dangerous, because temperature below ISA. ✓

What is the range calculation from CAP697 for class B multi-engine aircraft based on?

A) It is based on the ground range

B) It is valid for all weights

C) It is derived from from the pressure altitude and power setting ✓

D) It is applicable for all temperatures

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the section where ATF NDB is located?

A) 1700 ft AAL

B) 2300 ft

C) 1700 ft AMSL ✓

D) 1700 m

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO) 13" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Elba VOR (ELB, N42°43' E010°23') to Bastia VOR (BTA, N42°34' E009°28'). When and who should you contact for authorisation to enter the next FIR, if it has not yet been provided?

A) AT BTA VOR, contact Marseille on 133.800.

B) AFTER waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 133.800.

C) AT waypoint XOPTA, contact Marseille on 130.955.

D) AT or BEFORE waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 130.955. ✓

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing from AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) and going to Aberdeen VOR ADN joining P600 at BUDON. Given the following information, what is the time needed to go from BUDON to ADN? TAS: 140 kt True wind: 170°/14 kt

A) 30 mins

B) 28 mins

C) 24 mins

D) 26 mins ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the radial and distance at AMGAR from Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) Radial: 059°; distance: 70 NM.

B) Radial: 236°; distance: 70 NM.

C) Radial: 239°; distance: 20 NM. ✓

D) Radial: 059°; distance: 20 NM.

Refer to figures or E(LO)1 and E(LO)2 charts from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the approach frequency for Durham Tees Valley (EGNV, N54°31' W001°26')?

A) 118.85 ✓

B) 347.50

C) 132.37

D) 120.75

Which temperature correction must be applied during an instrument approach?

A) Warmer than the temperature at aerodrome level.

B) Warmer than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

C) Colder than the temperature at aerodrome level. ✓

D) Colder than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

Refer to chart E(LO)3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. After passing Biggin VOR (BIG, N51º20' E000º02') on a northern heading (349°), what is the next waypoint on the N16 route?

A) CLN

B) LAM

C) BPK ✓

D) OCK

Refer to chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What type of airway links FARO VOR (VFA, N37°01' W007°58') and SEVILLE VOR (SVL, N37°26' W005°46')?

A) Non-ATS route

B) Non-RNAV route ✓

C) Conditional

D) RNAV ATS

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3D from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are climbing on SID ANDIK 2G to FL380 with an average TAS of 300 knots and a 25-knot tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). Calculate the ground distance after ANDIK where you will achieve FL380.

A) 100 NGM

B) 90 NGM

C) 80 NGM

D) 73 NGM ✓

An IFR flight is planned across terrain where the maximum elevation is 4600 ft. The forecast temperature is ISA +12°C, and the Minimum Obstacle Clearance required is 1500 ft. A nearby aerodrome elevation 875 ft reports a QNH of 1025 hPa. What is the minimum flight level that could be planned for the cruise?

A) FL60 ✓

B) FL40

C) FL50

D) FL80

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2F SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is reauthorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 20 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 90 NGM

B) 70 NAM

C) 100 NGM

D) 76 NGM ✓

Refer to figure. What is the correct arrival route when arriving via DISUN?

A) KOGOL 4A

B) MERSI 4A

C) OSDER 4A ✓

D) IRBIR 5A

Refer to figure. What speed restriction has to be considered during an ILS approach on runway 19 when passing the check altitude of 1973 ft?

A) No speed restriction

B) Maximum 130 kt

C) Maximum 150 kt ✓

D) Maximum 180 kt

Your ETO overhead the next waypoint is 15:46 Zulu, and ATC asks you to be there at 15:43 Zulu. How do you handle the FMS to meet the requested time?

A) Ignore the ATC request, as the FMS is not equipped to handle inflight ETO changes.

B) The FMS can only calculate times for the initial flight plan and does not support recalculations.

C) The FMS cannot recalculate ETO changes during the flight; you must manually calculate and adjust speed.

D) Program a new speed into the FMS, which will calculate a new ETO that matches the time requested by ATC. ✓

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam Chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2E SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is re-authorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 30 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 65 NAM

B) 73 NGM ✓

C) 58 NGM

D) 65 NGM

An aircraft on a track of 240°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1 003 hPa and OAT is ISA - 12°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL290

C) FL320

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figure or STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: B Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

If flying an aircraft not equipped with automatic temperature correction, to which altitudes should the PIC apply temperature correction?

A) Only at the step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF).

B) Only at MDH/MDA or DH/DA.

C) Only at the intermediate section.

D) At MDH/MDA or DH/DA and step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF). ✓

Refer to figures or Stuttgart approach charts 11-1, 11-1A, 11-2, 11-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departed from Stuttgart airport on Runway 07, but due to a passenger's serious illness, the pilot decided to turn back and land at Stuttgart airport following the ILS CAT III Rwy 07 approach procedure. Which approach chart should the pilot use?

A) 11-2A

B) 11-2

C) 11-1A ✓

D) 11-1

Refer to Aberdeen Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If an aircraft is on a magnetic bearing of 110° at a distance of 15 NM from Aberdeen aerodrome (EGPD), what is its Minimum Radar Altitude?

A) 4100 ft

B) 2800 ft

C) 2500 ft ✓

D) 2300 ft

Refer to the figure or Chart E(LO) 1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are on airway Y906 and flying a magnetic track of 124° towards RIMOL. After RIMOL you plan to to fly inbound to Glasgow VOR (GOW, 115.4 MHz). Which radial will you be on?

A) 191° R

B) 010° R ✓

C) 118° R

D) 011° R

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category D aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 402 ft

C) RVR 1000 m ✓

D) RVR 800 m

Refer to figure or to chart AT(HI) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM. What is the true initial great circle track from the Bjornoya NDB to your position (74°N 015°E), given that the initial great circle track to the beacon is 057°(M)?

A) 258°M

B) 245°T

C) 230°M

D) 249°T ✓

How can RNAV 1, RNAV 2 SID or STAR, RNP 1 and RNP 2 routes be modified by pilots?

A) Manually, by inserting or deleting waypoints, in response to an ATC clearance. ✓

B) By deleting waypoints and manually entries of latitude and longitude with ATC clearance.

C) Manually, by inserting range and bearing to a new waypoint, in response to an ATC clearance.

D) By inserting or deleting waypoints in the database and/or obtaining a Rho-Theta Fix.

An aircraft on a track of 046°(M) has to fly over an obstacle of 4600 ft with a clearance of 1000 ft. The QNH is 990 hPa and the temperature is ISA +15°C. What is the minimum safe flight level at which the aircraft may fly? Assume 30 ft per hPa.

A) FL60

B) FL50

C) FL70 ✓

D) FL80

Where can VORs be referenced to the True North?

A) New Scotland.

B) Alaska only.

C) Southern California.

D) Northern Canada. ✓

Given the following information, what is the GS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: -40°C Mach number: M 0.82 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 452 kt

B) 530 kt

C) 446 kt ✓

D) 488 kt

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-3C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is following a departure route with the following constraints: minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 3100 ft; maximum speed during the turn onto radial 246 from ALT is 220 kt; and the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5900 ft. Based on this information, which departure route is being followed, and from which runway is the aircraft departing?

A) RW10, MITOS 2A.

B) RW28, MITOS 2A.

C) RW28, MITOS 1C. ✓

D) RW10, MITOS 1C.

You are flying at FL80 over a hilly area with the highest obstacle at 5600 ft. The QNH at a nearby aerodrome (elevation 2000 ft) is 1003 hPa, and the temperature is ISA -11°C. Considering the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA), is your vertical separation from the obstacle sufficient?

A) No, because the pressure and temperature corrections reduce your altitude below the obstacle height.

B) Yes, because FL80 corresponds to approximately 8000 ft regardless of temperature.

C) No, because the corrected true altitude provides only about 1672 ft of clearance.

D) Yes, because the obstacle clearance is more than 1000 ft. ✓

Refer to figure or E(LO)14 Chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the shortest route from Araxos (ARA) VOR/DME (N38°06'31" E021°25'24") to Didimon (DDM) VOR/DME (N37°28'44" E023°13'04")?

A) ARA - N604 - KOR - G85 - DDM ✓

B) ARA - B34 - DDM

C) ARA - L612 - TRL - J61 - DDM

D) ARA - J52 - IXONI - L53 - KOR - G85

Which statement is correct for an aircraft conducting an approach into Stuttgart if its VNAV capability is unavailable and only LNAV can be used?

A) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

B) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments.

C) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments. ✓

D) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

Refer to figure. If BUBOK is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to BUBOK has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the shortest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T ✓

C) DARAX1T

D) DESDI4T

An aeroplane is maintaining M 0.80 at FL360, where the OAT is -55°C, the crew are instructed by ATC to climb to and maintain FL380, where the OAT is -52°C and to maintain a speed of M 0.76. By how much will the TAS change?

A) 20 kt increase

B) 15 kt increase

C) 15 kt decrease

D) 20 kt decrease ✓

Refer to figures or TROMSO - Charts 10-2B, 10-2C, 10-2D, and 10-2E from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which STARs may be available, if the surface wind comes from 350°M?

A) AMIMO 2M

B) AMIMO 7Y; AMIMO 7Z

C) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X

D) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X; AMIMO 1W ✓

Refer to figure or Amsterdam Chart 11-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following statements is correct, for an aircraft category C?

A) Once established on the glide path, descent can be initiated at the pilot's discretion.

B) After passing LCTR, turn outbound heading 310°, then intercept the localizer inbound on 183° after 1 minute. ✓

C) Descend to 3000 feet at LTCR.

D) After passing LCTR, descend to a height of 2000 feet.

An aircraft cruising at flight level 350 is cleared to climb to FL380, despite this being higher than its optimum cruising altitude. Upon reaching FL380, the aircraft begins to experience clear air turbulence (CAT). Soon after, it is affected by Mach buffet. What could reasonably explain this situation?

A) Descending into denser air reduced aerodynamic damping.

B) The aircraft exceeded its MMO. ✓

C) An acceleration of more than 1.3g is experienced.

D) The CAT lowers the optimum altitude.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)15 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) along airway P727 from OSMUS waypoint (N53°53.7' E026°43.4') to PNK VOR/DME (N52°09.2' E026° 07.8')?

A) FL380

B) FL390

C) FL410

D) FL430 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA

D) 10 NM after VILNA ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category B aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 175 kt. What is the required visibility and MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 901 ft, 3600 m.

B) 890 ft, 3600 m.

C) 880 ft, 2400 m. ✓

D) 891 ft, 2400 m.

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. During an IFR flight northbound on airway P1, between TULIP and MONIL, you are approximately 10 NM north of TULIP. Using the ELO 2 chart, which frequency should you contact?

A) AMSTERDAM 125.75 MHz

B) AMSTERDAM 124.880 MHz

C) AMSTERDAM 123.705 MHz ✓

D) DUTCH MIL 128.355 MHz

Refer to Amsterdam Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Radar Minimum Altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic bearing of 100° from Schiphol aerodrome (EHAM) and at a distance of 13 NM from the aerodrome?

A) 3000 ft

B) 1700 ft

C) 2500 ft

D) 2000 ft ✓

In the aviation context, what does MSAW mean?

A) Minimum Surface Area Warning

B) Minimum Surface Altitude Warning

C) Minimum Safe Altitude Warning ✓

D) Minimum Sector Area Warning

Refer to figure. What does the RNAV symbol in line A refer to?

A) Fly-by waypoint. ✓

B) Fly-over waypoint.

C) Compulsory waypoint.

D) Non-compulsory waypoint Fly-over waypoint.

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". The section of a routing is via airway T256 from NORBO to DEAN CROSS (DCS, N54°43' W003°20'). What is the initial true track course after passing NORBO?

A) 138°

B) 147°

C) 144°

D) 141° ✓

Refer to figure. A pilot is flying the route depicted. After completing the first leg, the pilot realizes that the actual wind conditions differ from the forecast used for flight planning. On the leg between the Fruges Windfarm and Wimereux, the pilot checks the aircraft's satellite navigation system and notes a ground speed of 115 kt. When should the pilot expect to arrive at the turning point over Wimereux?

A) 14:56

B) 14:45

C) 14:42 ✓

D) 14:43

Refer to figure or ALICANTE Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the initial minimum climb gradient on the CATON 2C SID from Alicante (LEAL) aerodrome?

A) 5.5% ✓

B) 5.0%

C) 4.5%

D) 4.0%

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What are the approximate distance and magnetic track for a flight from Sumburgh (SUM) VOR/DME (59°52'44"N 001°17'44"W) to the Ninian North oil rig (60°57'38"N 001°27'44"E)?

A) 120 NM / 270°M

B) 100 NM / 053°M ✓

C) 55 NM / 350°M

D) 95 NM / 065°M

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance of the route segments defined by the waypoints LUKUM, ROMAM, LUXAN and the LSE VOR/DME?

A) 11 NM – 22 NM – 16 NM

B) 22 NM – 11 NM – 16 NM

C) 16 NM – 22 NM – 11 NM

D) 11 NM – 16 NM – 22 NM ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are cleared for a departure via SID CATON 3A to ALT VOR/DME without exceeding FL70. After passing ALT VOR/DME, you are re-cleared to continue climbing at FL180. If QNH is 1040 hPa, Rate of Climb is 1200 ft/min and GS is 151 kt, where will be the Top of Climb (ToC)?

A) 3 NM after ALT VOR/DME.

B) Overhead VILNA.

C) 3 NM before VILNA.

D) 3 NM after VILNA. ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 1200 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA ✓

D) 10 NM after VILNA

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the point 15 DME from the VOR on a magnetic bearing of 240°?

A) 4000 ft

B) 5000 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 3000 ft ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance to the IAF when performing GERVU 1M STAR procedure, provided the aircraft is RNAV equipped?

A) 20 NM

B) 63 NM ✓

C) 43 NM

D) 59.7 NM

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category C aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 185 kt. What is the required MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 891 ft

B) 880 ft

C) 890 ft ✓

D) 901 ft

Refer to figure or chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft takes off from FARO (VFA) VOR/DME (N37°00'49" W007°58'30") to SEVILLE (SVL) VOR/DME (N37°25'40" W005°45'44"). What is the true track that must be followed?

A) 085°T

B) 080°T

C) 070°T

D) 077°T ✓

The highest obstacle located within 8 km of a specific IFR route above mountainous terrain is 1220 ft. What is the minimum altitude providing the required obstacle clearance?

A) 3300 ft

B) 3220 ft ✓

C) 2220 ft

D) 2300 ft

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM Chart 13-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the DH for the VOR straight-in approach on runway 18R?

A) 2013 ft

B) 2000 ft

C) 703 ft ✓

D) 690 ft

An aircraft is flying at FL80 where the outside air temperature is ISA +15°C. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 1020 hPa. Calculate the aircraft’s true altitude. (Assume 30 ft/hpa)

A) 7750 ft

B) 8000 ft

C) 8210 ft

D) 8700 ft ✓

What does the NOTAM "BASIC GNSS UNAVBL in a given area on Jan 5 from 17:30 to 20:00 UTC" imply for any aircraft operating in that area and time period?

A) GNSS may still be used en-route, but is prohibited only for instrument approaches during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5.

B) Only SBAS corrections are unavailable; basic GNSS remains authorized for en-route and approach, provided RAIM is available.

C) The NOTAM is advisory; pilots may continue to use GNSS if a preflight RAIM prediction shows availability.

D) Aircraft cannot rely on GNSS for navigation during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5 and must use alternative means of navigation. ✓

An aircraft plans to fly from Sardinia to Tunisia along the airway G650. What type of ATS route is this?

A) RNP route

B) Conditional route

C) Non-RNAV (conventional) route ✓

D) RNAV route

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which standard arrival route is correct when arriving via ROBIS?

A) REKKEN 2A or NORKU 2A

B) REKKEN 2A

C) NORKU 2A ✓

D) EELDE 1A

Refer to figure. An aircraft flies overhead the MOU VOR/DME with an ETO of 18:01 and an ATO of 17:59. A diversion around a CB cloud increases the ATO overhead MOKIP by 3 minutes more than the ETO. The pilot decides to update the ETO times after MOKIP. Assuming that there is not any additional delay, what will the updated ETO be overhead KOGAS FIR boundary?

A) 18:16

B) 18:21 ✓

C) 18:15

D) 18:18

An aircraft descends from FL100, where the outside air temperature is −21°C, to FL70. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 975 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa = 30 ft, calculate is the aircraft’s true altitude at FL70.

A) 6000 ft

B) 7000 ft

C) 5860 ft

D) 5510 ft ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 minutes Climb to cruise level: 7 minutes Cruise distance: 130 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: 10 kt tailwind Anticipated hold at the alternate: 11 minutes Descent to the alternate: 7 minutes Approach to the alternate: 8 minutes

A) 89 minutes ✓

B) 78 minutes

C) 83 minutes

D) 97 minutes

Refer to figure. A twin-jet aeroplane is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information, find the sum of the required Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel. TAS: 400 kt Wind DEP-DP-DEST: 50 kt tailwind Wind DP-A: 20 kt tailwind Fuel consumption: 1500 kg/h Alternate Fuel for DEST: 1000 kg Alternate Fuel for A: 900 kg Additional Fuel for DEST: not required Additional Fuel for A: 900 kg Extra Fuel: not required

A) 3412 kg ✓

B) 4050 kg

C) 3250 kg

D) 3395 kg

Refer to figure. Determine the amount of the Final Reserve Fuel (FINRES) for this Commercial Air Transport jet aircraft.

A) 2417 kg

B) 1714 kg

C) 1611 kg

D) 1174 kg ✓

Calculate the allowed mass for take-off, given the following data for a Medium-Range Jet Transport Aeroplane(MRJT). Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 61688 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass (MTOM): 66990 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 65317 kg Performance limited Take-Off Mass (TOM): 64900 kg Performance limited Landing Mass (LM): 67300 kg Trip Fuel: 3800 kg Block Fuel: 6000 kg

A) 69117 kg

B) 66990 kg

C) 64900 kg ✓

D) 67688 kg

Given the following information, calculate the total fuel for engine start and taxi. Start fuel: 20 litres Taxi fuel flow: 150 litres per hour Taxi time: 10 minutes Fuel density: 0.82 kilograms per litre

A) 25 litres

B) 36.9 litres

C) 45 kilograms

D) 36.9 kilograms ✓

During the pre-flight preparation, the pilot calculates a take-off fuel of 53 US gallons. Considering a fuel density of 6 lb per US gallon, this equals…

A) 144 kg. ✓

B) 318 kg.

C) 701 kg.

D) 24 kg.

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel?

A) Trip Fuel = TOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

B) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

C) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Taxi Fuel – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

D) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required at the destination airport for a flight from Munich to London Heathrow, given the following information? Trip fuel: 3800 kg Contingency fuel: 230 kg Alternate fuel: 1200 kg Final reserve fuel: 1300 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 2730 kg.

B) 1300 kg.

C) 1530 kg.

D) 2500 kg. ✓

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 6660 kg Trip Fuel: 990 kg Block Fuel: 1540 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 7210 kg

B) 8200 kg

C) 8110 kg

D) 8175 kg ✓

Given: Dry Operating Mass: 4920 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 5740 kg Trip Fuel: 670 kg Take-Off Fuel: 1050 kg The Traffic Load is:

A) 2160 kg

B) 2480 kg

C) 820 kg ✓

D) 1340 kg

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 4920 kg Trip Fuel: 880 kg Block Fuel: 1330 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 6810 kg

B) 6360 kg

C) 6225 kg ✓

D) 6250 kg

Given the following information, calculate the estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial flight. Maximum structural take-off mass: 8350 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 8350 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 6210 kg Taxi Fuel: 10 kg Contingency Fuel: 90 kg Alternate Fuel: 300 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 400 kg Trip Fuel: 780 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 8350 kg

B) 7000 kg ✓

C) 7790 kg

D) 7780 kg

Given: The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kg. Total fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 770 kg. What is the Zero Fuel Mass is:

A) 6129 kg

B) 6870 kg

C) 6899 kg ✓

D) 6420 kg

The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0.80 kg/l. If the density is 0.75 kg/l, the fuel burn will be:

A) 206 l/h

B) 235 l/h ✓

C) 220 l/h

D) 176 l/h

The fuel flow of a turbine engine is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75 and any other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow will be:

A) 200 kg/h ✓

B) 267 kg/h

C) 213 kg/h

D) 188 kg/h

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 38 000 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass = 72 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass = 65 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass = 61 000 kg Trip Fuel = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and traffic load are respectively:

A) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg

B) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg ✓

C) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

D) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg

Given: Fuel volume: 3800 US Gallons Fuel density: 0.79 kg/l The fuel mass is…

A) 14 383 kg.

B) 13 647 kg.

C) 18 206 kg.

D) 11 364 kg. ✓

The purpose of the decision point procedure is:

A) to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.

B) to increase the amount of extra fuel.

C) to increase the safety of the flight.

D) to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load. ✓

Given: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg Trip fuel: 1 800 kg Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg Contingency (5% of trip fuel): 90 kg Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg Catering: 750 kg Baggage: 3 500 kg What is the Take-off Mass?

A) 52 265 kg

B) 51 425 kg

C) 55 765 kg

D) 51 515 kg ✓

Given: Maximum Allowable Take-Off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 35 500 kg Estimated load: 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel: 4 900 kg Minimum take-off fuel: 7 400 kg Find the maximum additional load.

A) 3 000 kg ✓

B) 4 000 kg

C) 7 000 kg

D) 5 600 kg

During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h 35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

A) 30.3 US gallons/hour ✓

B) 21.3 US gallons/hour

C) 33.0 US gallons/hour

D) 37.9 US gallons/hour

A jet aeroplane has a cruise fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h and a holding fuel consumption of 3690 kg/h. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the quantity of additional fuel must be:

A) 3045 kg.

B) 7380 kg.

C) 8120 kg. ✓

D) 1845 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Ramp Fuel load for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h Holding fuel consumption at 1 500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 74 800 kg.

B) 77 200 kg.

C) 79 800 kg.

D) 77 800 kg. ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 5352 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 6000 kg/h Destination Alternate fuel: 4380 kg Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 13 370 kg.

B) 13 000 kg. ✓

C) 14 500 kg.

D) 13 220 kg.

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 33510 kg Traffic Load = 7600 kg Trip Fuel = 2040 kg Final Reserve Fuel = 983 kg Alternate Fuel = 1100 kg Contingency Fuel = 5% of Trip Fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?

A) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43193 kg.

B) Estimated take-off mass = 45233 kg.

C) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43295 kg. ✓

D) Estimated take-off mass = 43295 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? The destination aerodrome has a single runway. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 8350 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 2800 kg/h Fuel needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield: 4380 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 15 948 kg

B) 14 548 kg ✓

C) 14 130 kg

D) 14 363 kg

A large jet aeroplane is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome, as a Commercial Air Transport operation. The flight time is 3 hours and the normal fuel consumption at cruise is 2648 kg per hour. The pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for the flight includes the items listed below. Given the following fuel load, how much more fuel needs to be loaded to achieve the legal requirement for additional fuel. Taxi Fuel: 180 kg Trip Fuel: 7942 kg Contingency Fuel: 398 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1107 kg

A) 6403 kg

B) 3178 kg

C) 5296 kg

D) 4189 kg ✓

Refer to figure. What amount of fuel should be entered in the TRIP line (Box A)?

A) 1300 kg

B) 2560 kg ✓

C) 4440 kg

D) 3867 kg

Refer to figures or CAP 697 Figure 4.4, and Figure 4.5.3.2. Using the following information as required, what is the minimum Additional Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in the Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane, to an isolated destination aerodrome? Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Total trip distance: 1131 NM Average wind component: +17 kt Average OAT: ISA Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Estimated weight at destination: 48000 kg Destination elevation: 4500 ft

A) 4424 kg

B) 1106 kg

C) 5201 kg

D) 4095 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the Final Reserve Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to a destination (DEST) having one destination alternate (ALTN) required. Estimated Landing Mass at DEST: 60000 kg Alternate Fuel: 3000 kg DEST elevation: 0 ft ALTN elevation: 3500 ft ISA conditions

A) 1370 kg

B) 1310 kg

C) 2580 kg

D) 1290 kg ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. Given the following information, how much Trip Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Ramp mass: 52500 kg Taxi Fuel: 150 kg Take-off and Climb Fuel: 1650 kg Cruise distance: 378 NAM Average wind component in cruise: +20 kt OAT: ISA Descent Fuel: 275 kg Approach and Landing Fuel: 80 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of Trip Fuel Alternate Fuel: 250 kg Holding fuel consumption: 2400 kg per hour

A) 3905 kg ✓

B) 4100 kg

C) 4055 kg

D) 3640 kg

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The fuel price at the destination aerodrome is higher than that at the departure. 2. The fuel price at the departure aerodrome is higher than that at the destination. 3. The fuel price ratio, departure to destination, is greater than 1. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 1 and 4 ✓

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 2

D) 2 and 3

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The estimated landing mass is equal to the maximum landing mass. 2. The weather at the destination is below landing minima. 3. Unable to climb to the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) should an engine fail. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 2 and 3

B) 2 and 4 ✓

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 4

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the minimum possible Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight from DEP to DEST with a twin-jet aeroplane. (Note: The operator is approved for the use of basic fuel scheme WITH variations) TAS: 450 kt HWC (Head Wind): 50 kt Fuel consumption en-route: 2000 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h Aerodrome A is a suitable alternate.

A) 100 kg

B) 250 kg ✓

C) 150 kg

D) 125 kg

An aircraft is required by ATC to fly at a speed faster than planned for a short period of time, resulting in a higher fuel burn. This unforeseen factor has an influence on the fuel consumption but is accounted for in the..

A) Trip Fuel.

B) Additional Fuel.

C) Contingency Fuel. ✓

D) Final Reserve Fuel.

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3420 kg Alternate Fuel: 968 kg Fuel flow at holding speed: 2376 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 171 kg

B) 198 kg ✓

C) 1782 kg

D) 1188 kg

Use the following information to determine the increase in fuel required for a cruise leg for a Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) flight. Cruise leg distance: 135 NM Planned cruise TAS: 450 kt Forecast wind component: +25 kt Planned cruise fuel consumption: 5 kg/NAM Revised forecast wind component: -25 kt

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 50 kg

C) 250 kg

D) 0 kg

A twin-engined turbojet is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information and assuming a fuel ERA is available for the flight to destination B, find the minimum required Contingency Fuel. Route: from DEP to original destination A via decision point DP with optional refuel destination B. Trip Fuel DEP-A via DP: 5000 kg Trip Fuel DEP-B via DP: 4000 kg Fuel DP-A: 2000 kg

A) 200 kg

B) 150 kg

C) 100 kg ✓

D) 250 kg

Which of the following is(are) Type A approach(es)? 1. ILS with MDH = 270 ft 2. VOR with MDH = 250 ft 3. ILS with MDH < 250 ft

A) 2 and 3.

B) Only 3.

C) 1 and 3.

D) 1 and 2. ✓

Refer to figure. Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-3Q from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the difference between EHØ48 and EHØ8Ø?

A) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for B737. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-over waypoint.

B) EHØ8Ø and EHØ48 are both used by B737, other aircraft only use EHØ48.

C) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for all aircraft.

D) EHØ8Ø is a fly-over waypoint for B737 only. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-by waypoint. ✓

Refer to figure. Which of the following is the frequency of Ibiza NDB?

A) IBA 117.8 kHz

B) IBA 117.8 MHz

C) IZA 394 MHz

D) IZA 394 kHz ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL80, with a restriction to maintain 2 000 ft until passing ALT VOR. The QNH is 1040 hPa, the aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 10 NM before ASTRO

B) 6 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM before VILNA ✓

D) 1 NM after VILNA

Refer to ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You lose engine power at 6500 ft over GERVU as you approach for runway 10. Which IAF will ATC likely give you?

A) ALICANTE (ATE)

B) ALTET (ALT) IAF ✓

C) BESOR IAF

D) VILNA IAF

What is an advantage of using GNSS FMC equipment in flight?

A) There is NO need for a route check as this is an automatic function.

B) The aircraft systems require less data from the Air Data Computer.

C) The aircraft's position can be continuously displayed. ✓

D) In-flight weather is more easily detected and avoided.

An aircraft is flying at 2600 ft with altimeter set to 1000 hPa (QNH of an nearby airfield at 600 ft). Considering that the air mass at that airfield is on average 8°C warmer than standard, calculate the aircraft's true altitude over the field.

A) 2520 ft

B) 2595 ft

C) 2760 ft

D) 2664 ft ✓

What is an ILS CAT I approach with a DH of 340 ft?

A) Type B 3D approach.

B) Type B 2D approach.

C) Type A 3D approach. ✓

D) Type A 2D approach.

Refer to figure. The figure shows a partially completed navigation plan from Ajaccio aerodrome (LFKJ) in Corsica with elevation 17 ft. If your rate of climb is 925 ft/min, at what distance from AJO will you reach FL130?

A) 24 NM

B) 22 NM

C) 20 NM ✓

D) 18 NM

What does "BIMON CDR 1 DUMBO 17:00-23:00" mean?

A) FIS route.

B) Conditional RNAV route.

C) Permanently plannable CDR during designated times. ✓

D) Permanently unplannable CDR during designated times.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have been requested to perform a flight overflying the Rennes VOR (REN) (N48°04' W001°45') and the BOLRO waypoint (N50°00' W001°42'). Which airway would you file in your flight plan?

A) UN862

B) UT507

C) UP87 ✓

D) UY110

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) at IAF for Runway 28 from VLC VOR?

A) 5 900 ft

B) FL100

C) 6 500 ft ✓

D) FL70

Refer to Amsterdam- chart 16-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following are approach lights provided for Amsterdam RWY 18C?

A) Standard ALSF II

B) HIALS ✓

C) PAPIS

D) HIALS Calvert II

Refer to figure. (For this question use the chart "E(LO) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). A route connects the waypoint AMGAR (42°33'18.40"N, 003°15'12.00"W) with TABANERA VOR (42°01'39.00"N, 004°06'33.00"W). What kind of route is this?

A) Conditional ATS route.

B) RNAV ATS route. ✓

C) Direct ATS route.

D) ATS route used by non B-RNAV equipped aircraft.

Given the following information, what is the Ground Speed of the aircraft? TAS: 150 kt Heading: 090 Wind: 030/50 kt

A) 109 kt.

B) 139 kt.

C) 129 kt. ✓

D) 119 kt.

Refer to ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is not P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 10?

A) SOPET 1G ✓

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C

Refer to ALICANTE charts 11-1, 11-2, 13-1, 13-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have followed Alicante arrival RESTU 1Q which leads to the initial approach fix ALTET. Which approaches can you use from there?

A) ILS Y and VOR Y. ✓

B) ILS Z and VOR Z.

C) ILS Y and VOR Z.

D) ILS Z and VOR Y.

Refer to figure or GSPRM Alicante (LEAL) STAR 10-2C. While briefing the GERVU 1M STAR, if the training captain asks about the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) from GERVU, the correct response is…

A) FL75 ✓

B) 6900 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 4000 ft

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial true course from KEFLAVÍK (BIKF, N63°59.1' W022°36.3') to AMSTERDAM (EHAM, N52°18.5′ E004°45.8′)?

A) 110°

B) 103°

C) 122°

D) 116° ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". On a flight on airway P600 you are passing TURNBERRY VOR (TRN, N55°19' W004°47') and intersections GIRVA, TUNSO and BLACA. What is the MEA between GIRVA and TUNSO?

A) 5000 ft

B) 6000 ft

C) FL60 ✓

D) FL70

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial magnetic course from BENBECULA (N57°27.9' W007°23') to KEFLAVÍK (N63°59.1' W022°36.3')?

A) 303º

B) 302º

C) 322º ✓

D) 317º

Refer to chart E(LO)2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic bearing and distance from Trent (TNT) VOR/DME (53°03'N 001°40'W) to waypoint TIMPO (52°33'N 001°10'W).

A) 149°M / 35 NM ✓

B) 329°M / 25 NM

C) 149°M / 25 NM

D) 329°M / 35 NM

An aircraft on a track of 204°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1033 hPa and OAT is ISA + 20°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL320

C) FL280

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is fully P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 28?

A) SOPET 1G

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C ✓

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category A aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 352 ft

C) RVR 1500 m

D) RVR 800 m ✓

Refer to figure. When should a temperature error correction be applied to an approach?

A) Between -10ºC and -15ºC

B) Colder than -10ºC

C) Between 0ºC and -10ºC ✓

D) Warmer than -10ºC

Refer to AMSTERDAM 10-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from MUNSTER Airport and is heading west. The aircraft experiences a critical fuel situation and cannot return to its departure airport. The crew decide to land at Amsterdam Airport. Which STAR should the crew expect? Choose the shortest STARs and the ones closest to the departure airport.

A) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2A ✓

B) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2B

C) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2A

D) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2B

A pilot is being vectored in controlled airspace and is told to descend below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but not below the Minimum Radar Vectoring Altitude (MRVA). What should the pilot do?

A) Follow the commands of the controller ONLY if the commander thinks it is safe regarding terrain separation. ✓

B) Follow the commands of the controller who is fully responsible for terrain separation.

C) Turn around and leave the controlled airspace.

D) Declare an emergency and climb back to MSA.

Refer to figures or AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Paris to AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) but due to operational limitations, they are taking all approaches from the west. Which routes should you use?

A) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PESER 2A, PUTTY 1A

B) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A ✓

C) TOPPA 2A

D) REKKEN 2A, REKKEN 2B, NORKU 2A, NORKU 2B

Refer to STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: D Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the track and distance from AMGAR to Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) 070° / 50 NM

B) 045° / 30 NM

C) 059° / 40 NM

D) 059° / 20 NM ✓

The ATC instructs the pilot of an aircraft flying in IMC and over mountainous terrain to descend from FL100 to FL70. The temperature is ISA +15°C and the QNH, reported from a nearby airfield with an elevation of 300 ft, is 975 hPa. What is the true altitude at FL70 that the pilot must use to confirm a safe terrain clearance before descending to the new flight level? Use 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 6195 ft ✓

B) 5530 ft

C) 7810 ft

D) 5860 ft

When must a pilot apply corrections due to temperature variations?

A) When the temperature is below ISA -15 ✓

B) When the temperature is over ISA +15

C) When the temperature is between ISA -5 and ISA +5

D) When the temperature is ISA +15

Refer to E(LO)-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are completing a low level flight over the sea and have just turned south towards land. Which frequency should you call overhead GOLVO (N54°25′ E003°38′)?

A) London 134.25

B) Scottish 121.32

C) Dutch Mil 128.335

D) Amsterdam Info 119.17 ✓

When should a temperature correction be applied to the altitude at the IAF to provide adequate terrain clearance?

A) when the temperature at the runway surface is significantly higher than ISA

B) when the temperature at the top of descent is higher than ISA

C) when the temperature at the top of cruise is lower than ISA

D) when the temperature at the airport is significantly lower than ISA ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - charts 10-2B, 13-2, 13-3, 13-4, 13-5 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which approaches can be made from a CALLES 2N / VALENCIA 2N STAR?

A) VOR Y RWY 28; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

B) VOR Y RWY 10; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR Y RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

C) VOR Z; VOR X; VOR Y

D) VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28 ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing the AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) at 0600 hrs to Aberdeen joining P600 at BUDON. Which frequency do you call after departure?

A) Aberdeen 119.05 ✓

B) Aberdeen 134.10

C) Scottish 125.72

D) Aberdeen 128.30

An airway in mountainous terrain is designed so that the lowest level is above the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA). What is the approximate minimum clearance used in calculating the MOCA?

A) 1000 ft clearance over obstacles up to and including 5000 ft; and 2000 ft clearance for obstacles over 5000 ft in elevation. ✓

B) 1500 ft for all mountainous terrain.

C) 1500 ft for terrain elevations less than 5000 ft; 2000 ft for terrain elevations greater than 5000 ft.

D) 1000 ft for all mountainous terrain.

Refer to figure. Which approach lighting system is installed at Runway 21?

A) CAT III.

B) CAT II.

C) CAT I with barrette at the center. ✓

D) Simple approach light.

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If you take off from Valence (LFLU, N44°55' E004°58′) and head south to join airway B16 via VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47'), which sector would you be in contact with?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32 ✓

An IFR flight has been given descent instructions below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation?

A) The Controller and the PIC should accept the routing.

B) The Controller and the PIC should not accept the routing.

C) The PIC and the PIC should accept the routing.

D) The PIC and the routing should not be accepted. ✓

Refer to Tromso, Norway (ENTC) SID chart 10-3A from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. According to your calculations, your aircraft can climb with a gradient of 6.5% up to 4000 ft. Considering your aircraft's performance, which route should you take when departing from Tromso?

A) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 210 kt up to TC704 ✓

B) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707 then 210 kt up to TC704

C) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC708

D) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707

During the preparation of an IFR flight, the track indicated between two VOR stations on the IFR map is 137°. The applicable variation is 6°E. The reported wind is 210°/25 kt. The planned cruising speed for this leg is 175 kt. To keep the track, the wind correction angle is (1) _. The corresponding groundspeed is (2) _.

A) (1) 8° to the left; (2) 183 kt

B) (1) 14° to the left; (2) 181 kt

C) (1) 2° to the right; (2) 166 kt

D) (1) 8° to the right; (2) 164 kt ✓

Given an LNAV/VNAV approach with a temperature deviation of ISA -15, a charted Decision Altitude (DA) of 530 ft, and a Decision Height (DH) of approximately 432 ft, calculate the new Decision Altitude.

A) Around 430 ft

B) 530 ft

C) 550 ft

D) Higher than 550 ft ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which sector would you be in contact with when flying overhead VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47')?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90 ✓

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32

Given the following data, what is the TAS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: ISA -10 C Mach Number: M 0.77 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 430 kt ✓

B) 420 kt

C) 450 kt

D) 460 kt

A pilot is being radar vectored in controlled airspace below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation and what should the commander do?

A) Commander is responsible and commander should always accept.

B) ATC is responsible and commander should always accept.

C) Commander is responsible for terrain separation and commander should accept.

D) ATC is responsible and commander should reject instruction if it is dangerous, because temperature below ISA. ✓

What is the range calculation from CAP697 for class B multi-engine aircraft based on?

A) It is based on the ground range

B) It is valid for all weights

C) It is derived from from the pressure altitude and power setting ✓

D) It is applicable for all temperatures

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the section where ATF NDB is located?

A) 1700 ft AAL

B) 2300 ft

C) 1700 ft AMSL ✓

D) 1700 m

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO) 13" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Elba VOR (ELB, N42°43' E010°23') to Bastia VOR (BTA, N42°34' E009°28'). When and who should you contact for authorisation to enter the next FIR, if it has not yet been provided?

A) AT BTA VOR, contact Marseille on 133.800.

B) AFTER waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 133.800.

C) AT waypoint XOPTA, contact Marseille on 130.955.

D) AT or BEFORE waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 130.955. ✓

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing from AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) and going to Aberdeen VOR ADN joining P600 at BUDON. Given the following information, what is the time needed to go from BUDON to ADN? TAS: 140 kt True wind: 170°/14 kt

A) 30 mins

B) 28 mins

C) 24 mins

D) 26 mins ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the radial and distance at AMGAR from Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) Radial: 059°; distance: 70 NM.

B) Radial: 236°; distance: 70 NM.

C) Radial: 239°; distance: 20 NM. ✓

D) Radial: 059°; distance: 20 NM.

Refer to figures or E(LO)1 and E(LO)2 charts from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the approach frequency for Durham Tees Valley (EGNV, N54°31' W001°26')?

A) 118.85 ✓

B) 347.50

C) 132.37

D) 120.75

Which temperature correction must be applied during an instrument approach?

A) Warmer than the temperature at aerodrome level.

B) Warmer than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

C) Colder than the temperature at aerodrome level. ✓

D) Colder than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

Refer to chart E(LO)3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. After passing Biggin VOR (BIG, N51º20' E000º02') on a northern heading (349°), what is the next waypoint on the N16 route?

A) CLN

B) LAM

C) BPK ✓

D) OCK

Refer to chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What type of airway links FARO VOR (VFA, N37°01' W007°58') and SEVILLE VOR (SVL, N37°26' W005°46')?

A) Non-ATS route

B) Non-RNAV route ✓

C) Conditional

D) RNAV ATS

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3D from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are climbing on SID ANDIK 2G to FL380 with an average TAS of 300 knots and a 25-knot tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). Calculate the ground distance after ANDIK where you will achieve FL380.

A) 100 NGM

B) 90 NGM

C) 80 NGM

D) 73 NGM ✓

An IFR flight is planned across terrain where the maximum elevation is 4600 ft. The forecast temperature is ISA +12°C, and the Minimum Obstacle Clearance required is 1500 ft. A nearby aerodrome elevation 875 ft reports a QNH of 1025 hPa. What is the minimum flight level that could be planned for the cruise?

A) FL60 ✓

B) FL40

C) FL50

D) FL80

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2F SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is reauthorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 20 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 90 NGM

B) 70 NAM

C) 100 NGM

D) 76 NGM ✓

Refer to figure. What is the correct arrival route when arriving via DISUN?

A) KOGOL 4A

B) MERSI 4A

C) OSDER 4A ✓

D) IRBIR 5A

Refer to figure. What speed restriction has to be considered during an ILS approach on runway 19 when passing the check altitude of 1973 ft?

A) No speed restriction

B) Maximum 130 kt

C) Maximum 150 kt ✓

D) Maximum 180 kt

Your ETO overhead the next waypoint is 15:46 Zulu, and ATC asks you to be there at 15:43 Zulu. How do you handle the FMS to meet the requested time?

A) Ignore the ATC request, as the FMS is not equipped to handle inflight ETO changes.

B) The FMS can only calculate times for the initial flight plan and does not support recalculations.

C) The FMS cannot recalculate ETO changes during the flight; you must manually calculate and adjust speed.

D) Program a new speed into the FMS, which will calculate a new ETO that matches the time requested by ATC. ✓

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam Chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2E SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is re-authorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 30 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 65 NAM

B) 73 NGM ✓

C) 58 NGM

D) 65 NGM

An aircraft on a track of 240°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1 003 hPa and OAT is ISA - 12°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL290

C) FL320

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figure or STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: B Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

If flying an aircraft not equipped with automatic temperature correction, to which altitudes should the PIC apply temperature correction?

A) Only at the step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF).

B) Only at MDH/MDA or DH/DA.

C) Only at the intermediate section.

D) At MDH/MDA or DH/DA and step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF). ✓

Refer to figures or Stuttgart approach charts 11-1, 11-1A, 11-2, 11-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departed from Stuttgart airport on Runway 07, but due to a passenger's serious illness, the pilot decided to turn back and land at Stuttgart airport following the ILS CAT III Rwy 07 approach procedure. Which approach chart should the pilot use?

A) 11-2A

B) 11-2

C) 11-1A ✓

D) 11-1

Refer to Aberdeen Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If an aircraft is on a magnetic bearing of 110° at a distance of 15 NM from Aberdeen aerodrome (EGPD), what is its Minimum Radar Altitude?

A) 4100 ft

B) 2800 ft

C) 2500 ft ✓

D) 2300 ft

Refer to the figure or Chart E(LO) 1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are on airway Y906 and flying a magnetic track of 124° towards RIMOL. After RIMOL you plan to to fly inbound to Glasgow VOR (GOW, 115.4 MHz). Which radial will you be on?

A) 191° R

B) 010° R ✓

C) 118° R

D) 011° R

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category D aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 402 ft

C) RVR 1000 m ✓

D) RVR 800 m

Refer to figure or to chart AT(HI) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM. What is the true initial great circle track from the Bjornoya NDB to your position (74°N 015°E), given that the initial great circle track to the beacon is 057°(M)?

A) 258°M

B) 245°T

C) 230°M

D) 249°T ✓

How can RNAV 1, RNAV 2 SID or STAR, RNP 1 and RNP 2 routes be modified by pilots?

A) Manually, by inserting or deleting waypoints, in response to an ATC clearance. ✓

B) By deleting waypoints and manually entries of latitude and longitude with ATC clearance.

C) Manually, by inserting range and bearing to a new waypoint, in response to an ATC clearance.

D) By inserting or deleting waypoints in the database and/or obtaining a Rho-Theta Fix.

An aircraft on a track of 046°(M) has to fly over an obstacle of 4600 ft with a clearance of 1000 ft. The QNH is 990 hPa and the temperature is ISA +15°C. What is the minimum safe flight level at which the aircraft may fly? Assume 30 ft per hPa.

A) FL60

B) FL50

C) FL70 ✓

D) FL80

Where can VORs be referenced to the True North?

A) New Scotland.

B) Alaska only.

C) Southern California.

D) Northern Canada. ✓

Given the following information, what is the GS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: -40°C Mach number: M 0.82 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 452 kt

B) 530 kt

C) 446 kt ✓

D) 488 kt

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-3C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is following a departure route with the following constraints: minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 3100 ft; maximum speed during the turn onto radial 246 from ALT is 220 kt; and the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5900 ft. Based on this information, which departure route is being followed, and from which runway is the aircraft departing?

A) RW10, MITOS 2A.

B) RW28, MITOS 2A.

C) RW28, MITOS 1C. ✓

D) RW10, MITOS 1C.

You are flying at FL80 over a hilly area with the highest obstacle at 5600 ft. The QNH at a nearby aerodrome (elevation 2000 ft) is 1003 hPa, and the temperature is ISA -11°C. Considering the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA), is your vertical separation from the obstacle sufficient?

A) No, because the pressure and temperature corrections reduce your altitude below the obstacle height.

B) Yes, because FL80 corresponds to approximately 8000 ft regardless of temperature.

C) No, because the corrected true altitude provides only about 1672 ft of clearance.

D) Yes, because the obstacle clearance is more than 1000 ft. ✓

Refer to figure or E(LO)14 Chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the shortest route from Araxos (ARA) VOR/DME (N38°06'31" E021°25'24") to Didimon (DDM) VOR/DME (N37°28'44" E023°13'04")?

A) ARA - N604 - KOR - G85 - DDM ✓

B) ARA - B34 - DDM

C) ARA - L612 - TRL - J61 - DDM

D) ARA - J52 - IXONI - L53 - KOR - G85

Which statement is correct for an aircraft conducting an approach into Stuttgart if its VNAV capability is unavailable and only LNAV can be used?

A) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

B) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments.

C) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments. ✓

D) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

Refer to figure. If BUBOK is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to BUBOK has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the shortest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T ✓

C) DARAX1T

D) DESDI4T

An aeroplane is maintaining M 0.80 at FL360, where the OAT is -55°C, the crew are instructed by ATC to climb to and maintain FL380, where the OAT is -52°C and to maintain a speed of M 0.76. By how much will the TAS change?

A) 20 kt increase

B) 15 kt increase

C) 15 kt decrease

D) 20 kt decrease ✓

Refer to figures or TROMSO - Charts 10-2B, 10-2C, 10-2D, and 10-2E from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which STARs may be available, if the surface wind comes from 350°M?

A) AMIMO 2M

B) AMIMO 7Y; AMIMO 7Z

C) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X

D) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X; AMIMO 1W ✓

Refer to figure or Amsterdam Chart 11-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following statements is correct, for an aircraft category C?

A) Once established on the glide path, descent can be initiated at the pilot's discretion.

B) After passing LCTR, turn outbound heading 310°, then intercept the localizer inbound on 183° after 1 minute. ✓

C) Descend to 3000 feet at LTCR.

D) After passing LCTR, descend to a height of 2000 feet.

An aircraft cruising at flight level 350 is cleared to climb to FL380, despite this being higher than its optimum cruising altitude. Upon reaching FL380, the aircraft begins to experience clear air turbulence (CAT). Soon after, it is affected by Mach buffet. What could reasonably explain this situation?

A) Descending into denser air reduced aerodynamic damping.

B) The aircraft exceeded its MMO. ✓

C) An acceleration of more than 1.3g is experienced.

D) The CAT lowers the optimum altitude.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)15 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) along airway P727 from OSMUS waypoint (N53°53.7' E026°43.4') to PNK VOR/DME (N52°09.2' E026° 07.8')?

A) FL380

B) FL390

C) FL410

D) FL430 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA

D) 10 NM after VILNA ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category B aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 175 kt. What is the required visibility and MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 901 ft, 3600 m.

B) 890 ft, 3600 m.

C) 880 ft, 2400 m. ✓

D) 891 ft, 2400 m.

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. During an IFR flight northbound on airway P1, between TULIP and MONIL, you are approximately 10 NM north of TULIP. Using the ELO 2 chart, which frequency should you contact?

A) AMSTERDAM 125.75 MHz

B) AMSTERDAM 124.880 MHz

C) AMSTERDAM 123.705 MHz ✓

D) DUTCH MIL 128.355 MHz

Refer to Amsterdam Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Radar Minimum Altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic bearing of 100° from Schiphol aerodrome (EHAM) and at a distance of 13 NM from the aerodrome?

A) 3000 ft

B) 1700 ft

C) 2500 ft

D) 2000 ft ✓

In the aviation context, what does MSAW mean?

A) Minimum Surface Area Warning

B) Minimum Surface Altitude Warning

C) Minimum Safe Altitude Warning ✓

D) Minimum Sector Area Warning

Refer to figure. What does the RNAV symbol in line A refer to?

A) Fly-by waypoint. ✓

B) Fly-over waypoint.

C) Compulsory waypoint.

D) Non-compulsory waypoint Fly-over waypoint.

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". The section of a routing is via airway T256 from NORBO to DEAN CROSS (DCS, N54°43' W003°20'). What is the initial true track course after passing NORBO?

A) 138°

B) 147°

C) 144°

D) 141° ✓

Refer to figure. A pilot is flying the route depicted. After completing the first leg, the pilot realizes that the actual wind conditions differ from the forecast used for flight planning. On the leg between the Fruges Windfarm and Wimereux, the pilot checks the aircraft's satellite navigation system and notes a ground speed of 115 kt. When should the pilot expect to arrive at the turning point over Wimereux?

A) 14:56

B) 14:45

C) 14:42 ✓

D) 14:43

Refer to figure or ALICANTE Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the initial minimum climb gradient on the CATON 2C SID from Alicante (LEAL) aerodrome?

A) 5.5% ✓

B) 5.0%

C) 4.5%

D) 4.0%

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What are the approximate distance and magnetic track for a flight from Sumburgh (SUM) VOR/DME (59°52'44"N 001°17'44"W) to the Ninian North oil rig (60°57'38"N 001°27'44"E)?

A) 120 NM / 270°M

B) 100 NM / 053°M ✓

C) 55 NM / 350°M

D) 95 NM / 065°M

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance of the route segments defined by the waypoints LUKUM, ROMAM, LUXAN and the LSE VOR/DME?

A) 11 NM – 22 NM – 16 NM

B) 22 NM – 11 NM – 16 NM

C) 16 NM – 22 NM – 11 NM

D) 11 NM – 16 NM – 22 NM ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are cleared for a departure via SID CATON 3A to ALT VOR/DME without exceeding FL70. After passing ALT VOR/DME, you are re-cleared to continue climbing at FL180. If QNH is 1040 hPa, Rate of Climb is 1200 ft/min and GS is 151 kt, where will be the Top of Climb (ToC)?

A) 3 NM after ALT VOR/DME.

B) Overhead VILNA.

C) 3 NM before VILNA.

D) 3 NM after VILNA. ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 1200 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA ✓

D) 10 NM after VILNA

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the point 15 DME from the VOR on a magnetic bearing of 240°?

A) 4000 ft

B) 5000 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 3000 ft ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance to the IAF when performing GERVU 1M STAR procedure, provided the aircraft is RNAV equipped?

A) 20 NM

B) 63 NM ✓

C) 43 NM

D) 59.7 NM

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category C aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 185 kt. What is the required MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 891 ft

B) 880 ft

C) 890 ft ✓

D) 901 ft

Refer to figure or chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft takes off from FARO (VFA) VOR/DME (N37°00'49" W007°58'30") to SEVILLE (SVL) VOR/DME (N37°25'40" W005°45'44"). What is the true track that must be followed?

A) 085°T

B) 080°T

C) 070°T

D) 077°T ✓

The highest obstacle located within 8 km of a specific IFR route above mountainous terrain is 1220 ft. What is the minimum altitude providing the required obstacle clearance?

A) 3300 ft

B) 3220 ft ✓

C) 2220 ft

D) 2300 ft

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM Chart 13-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the DH for the VOR straight-in approach on runway 18R?

A) 2013 ft

B) 2000 ft

C) 703 ft ✓

D) 690 ft

An aircraft is flying at FL80 where the outside air temperature is ISA +15°C. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 1020 hPa. Calculate the aircraft’s true altitude. (Assume 30 ft/hpa)

A) 7750 ft

B) 8000 ft

C) 8210 ft

D) 8700 ft ✓

What does the NOTAM "BASIC GNSS UNAVBL in a given area on Jan 5 from 17:30 to 20:00 UTC" imply for any aircraft operating in that area and time period?

A) GNSS may still be used en-route, but is prohibited only for instrument approaches during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5.

B) Only SBAS corrections are unavailable; basic GNSS remains authorized for en-route and approach, provided RAIM is available.

C) The NOTAM is advisory; pilots may continue to use GNSS if a preflight RAIM prediction shows availability.

D) Aircraft cannot rely on GNSS for navigation during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5 and must use alternative means of navigation. ✓

An aircraft plans to fly from Sardinia to Tunisia along the airway G650. What type of ATS route is this?

A) RNP route

B) Conditional route

C) Non-RNAV (conventional) route ✓

D) RNAV route

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which standard arrival route is correct when arriving via ROBIS?

A) REKKEN 2A or NORKU 2A

B) REKKEN 2A

C) NORKU 2A ✓

D) EELDE 1A

Refer to figure. An aircraft flies overhead the MOU VOR/DME with an ETO of 18:01 and an ATO of 17:59. A diversion around a CB cloud increases the ATO overhead MOKIP by 3 minutes more than the ETO. The pilot decides to update the ETO times after MOKIP. Assuming that there is not any additional delay, what will the updated ETO be overhead KOGAS FIR boundary?

A) 18:16

B) 18:21 ✓

C) 18:15

D) 18:18

An aircraft descends from FL100, where the outside air temperature is −21°C, to FL70. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 975 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa = 30 ft, calculate is the aircraft’s true altitude at FL70.

A) 6000 ft

B) 7000 ft

C) 5860 ft

D) 5510 ft ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 minutes Climb to cruise level: 7 minutes Cruise distance: 130 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: 10 kt tailwind Anticipated hold at the alternate: 11 minutes Descent to the alternate: 7 minutes Approach to the alternate: 8 minutes

A) 89 minutes ✓

B) 78 minutes

C) 83 minutes

D) 97 minutes

Refer to figure. A twin-jet aeroplane is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information, find the sum of the required Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel. TAS: 400 kt Wind DEP-DP-DEST: 50 kt tailwind Wind DP-A: 20 kt tailwind Fuel consumption: 1500 kg/h Alternate Fuel for DEST: 1000 kg Alternate Fuel for A: 900 kg Additional Fuel for DEST: not required Additional Fuel for A: 900 kg Extra Fuel: not required

A) 3412 kg ✓

B) 4050 kg

C) 3250 kg

D) 3395 kg

Refer to figure. Determine the amount of the Final Reserve Fuel (FINRES) for this Commercial Air Transport jet aircraft.

A) 2417 kg

B) 1714 kg

C) 1611 kg

D) 1174 kg ✓

Calculate the allowed mass for take-off, given the following data for a Medium-Range Jet Transport Aeroplane(MRJT). Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 61688 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass (MTOM): 66990 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 65317 kg Performance limited Take-Off Mass (TOM): 64900 kg Performance limited Landing Mass (LM): 67300 kg Trip Fuel: 3800 kg Block Fuel: 6000 kg

A) 69117 kg

B) 66990 kg

C) 64900 kg ✓

D) 67688 kg

Given the following information, calculate the total fuel for engine start and taxi. Start fuel: 20 litres Taxi fuel flow: 150 litres per hour Taxi time: 10 minutes Fuel density: 0.82 kilograms per litre

A) 25 litres

B) 36.9 litres

C) 45 kilograms

D) 36.9 kilograms ✓

During the pre-flight preparation, the pilot calculates a take-off fuel of 53 US gallons. Considering a fuel density of 6 lb per US gallon, this equals…

A) 144 kg. ✓

B) 318 kg.

C) 701 kg.

D) 24 kg.

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel?

A) Trip Fuel = TOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

B) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

C) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Taxi Fuel – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

D) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required at the destination airport for a flight from Munich to London Heathrow, given the following information? Trip fuel: 3800 kg Contingency fuel: 230 kg Alternate fuel: 1200 kg Final reserve fuel: 1300 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 2730 kg.

B) 1300 kg.

C) 1530 kg.

D) 2500 kg. ✓

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 6660 kg Trip Fuel: 990 kg Block Fuel: 1540 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 7210 kg

B) 8200 kg

C) 8110 kg

D) 8175 kg ✓

Given: Dry Operating Mass: 4920 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 5740 kg Trip Fuel: 670 kg Take-Off Fuel: 1050 kg The Traffic Load is:

A) 2160 kg

B) 2480 kg

C) 820 kg ✓

D) 1340 kg

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 4920 kg Trip Fuel: 880 kg Block Fuel: 1330 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 6810 kg

B) 6360 kg

C) 6225 kg ✓

D) 6250 kg

Given the following information, calculate the estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial flight. Maximum structural take-off mass: 8350 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 8350 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 6210 kg Taxi Fuel: 10 kg Contingency Fuel: 90 kg Alternate Fuel: 300 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 400 kg Trip Fuel: 780 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 8350 kg

B) 7000 kg ✓

C) 7790 kg

D) 7780 kg

Given: The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kg. Total fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 770 kg. What is the Zero Fuel Mass is:

A) 6129 kg

B) 6870 kg

C) 6899 kg ✓

D) 6420 kg

The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0.80 kg/l. If the density is 0.75 kg/l, the fuel burn will be:

A) 206 l/h

B) 235 l/h ✓

C) 220 l/h

D) 176 l/h

The fuel flow of a turbine engine is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75 and any other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow will be:

A) 200 kg/h ✓

B) 267 kg/h

C) 213 kg/h

D) 188 kg/h

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 38 000 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass = 72 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass = 65 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass = 61 000 kg Trip Fuel = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and traffic load are respectively:

A) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg

B) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg ✓

C) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

D) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg

Given: Fuel volume: 3800 US Gallons Fuel density: 0.79 kg/l The fuel mass is…

A) 14 383 kg.

B) 13 647 kg.

C) 18 206 kg.

D) 11 364 kg. ✓

The purpose of the decision point procedure is:

A) to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.

B) to increase the amount of extra fuel.

C) to increase the safety of the flight.

D) to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load. ✓

Given: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg Trip fuel: 1 800 kg Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg Contingency (5% of trip fuel): 90 kg Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg Catering: 750 kg Baggage: 3 500 kg What is the Take-off Mass?

A) 52 265 kg

B) 51 425 kg

C) 55 765 kg

D) 51 515 kg ✓

Given: Maximum Allowable Take-Off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 35 500 kg Estimated load: 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel: 4 900 kg Minimum take-off fuel: 7 400 kg Find the maximum additional load.

A) 3 000 kg ✓

B) 4 000 kg

C) 7 000 kg

D) 5 600 kg

During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h 35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

A) 30.3 US gallons/hour ✓

B) 21.3 US gallons/hour

C) 33.0 US gallons/hour

D) 37.9 US gallons/hour

A jet aeroplane has a cruise fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h and a holding fuel consumption of 3690 kg/h. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the quantity of additional fuel must be:

A) 3045 kg.

B) 7380 kg.

C) 8120 kg. ✓

D) 1845 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Ramp Fuel load for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h Holding fuel consumption at 1 500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 74 800 kg.

B) 77 200 kg.

C) 79 800 kg.

D) 77 800 kg. ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 5352 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 6000 kg/h Destination Alternate fuel: 4380 kg Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 13 370 kg.

B) 13 000 kg. ✓

C) 14 500 kg.

D) 13 220 kg.

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 33510 kg Traffic Load = 7600 kg Trip Fuel = 2040 kg Final Reserve Fuel = 983 kg Alternate Fuel = 1100 kg Contingency Fuel = 5% of Trip Fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?

A) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43193 kg.

B) Estimated take-off mass = 45233 kg.

C) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43295 kg. ✓

D) Estimated take-off mass = 43295 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? The destination aerodrome has a single runway. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 8350 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 2800 kg/h Fuel needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield: 4380 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 15 948 kg

B) 14 548 kg ✓

C) 14 130 kg

D) 14 363 kg

A large jet aeroplane is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome, as a Commercial Air Transport operation. The flight time is 3 hours and the normal fuel consumption at cruise is 2648 kg per hour. The pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for the flight includes the items listed below. Given the following fuel load, how much more fuel needs to be loaded to achieve the legal requirement for additional fuel. Taxi Fuel: 180 kg Trip Fuel: 7942 kg Contingency Fuel: 398 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1107 kg

A) 6403 kg

B) 3178 kg

C) 5296 kg

D) 4189 kg ✓

Refer to figure. What amount of fuel should be entered in the TRIP line (Box A)?

A) 1300 kg

B) 2560 kg ✓

C) 4440 kg

D) 3867 kg

Refer to figures or CAP 697 Figure 4.4, and Figure 4.5.3.2. Using the following information as required, what is the minimum Additional Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in the Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane, to an isolated destination aerodrome? Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Total trip distance: 1131 NM Average wind component: +17 kt Average OAT: ISA Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Estimated weight at destination: 48000 kg Destination elevation: 4500 ft

A) 4424 kg

B) 1106 kg

C) 5201 kg

D) 4095 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the Final Reserve Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to a destination (DEST) having one destination alternate (ALTN) required. Estimated Landing Mass at DEST: 60000 kg Alternate Fuel: 3000 kg DEST elevation: 0 ft ALTN elevation: 3500 ft ISA conditions

A) 1370 kg

B) 1310 kg

C) 2580 kg

D) 1290 kg ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. Given the following information, how much Trip Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Ramp mass: 52500 kg Taxi Fuel: 150 kg Take-off and Climb Fuel: 1650 kg Cruise distance: 378 NAM Average wind component in cruise: +20 kt OAT: ISA Descent Fuel: 275 kg Approach and Landing Fuel: 80 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of Trip Fuel Alternate Fuel: 250 kg Holding fuel consumption: 2400 kg per hour

A) 3905 kg ✓

B) 4100 kg

C) 4055 kg

D) 3640 kg

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The fuel price at the destination aerodrome is higher than that at the departure. 2. The fuel price at the departure aerodrome is higher than that at the destination. 3. The fuel price ratio, departure to destination, is greater than 1. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 1 and 4 ✓

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 2

D) 2 and 3

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The estimated landing mass is equal to the maximum landing mass. 2. The weather at the destination is below landing minima. 3. Unable to climb to the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) should an engine fail. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 2 and 3

B) 2 and 4 ✓

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 4

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the minimum possible Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight from DEP to DEST with a twin-jet aeroplane. (Note: The operator is approved for the use of basic fuel scheme WITH variations) TAS: 450 kt HWC (Head Wind): 50 kt Fuel consumption en-route: 2000 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h Aerodrome A is a suitable alternate.

A) 100 kg

B) 250 kg ✓

C) 150 kg

D) 125 kg

An aircraft is required by ATC to fly at a speed faster than planned for a short period of time, resulting in a higher fuel burn. This unforeseen factor has an influence on the fuel consumption but is accounted for in the..

A) Trip Fuel.

B) Additional Fuel.

C) Contingency Fuel. ✓

D) Final Reserve Fuel.

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3420 kg Alternate Fuel: 968 kg Fuel flow at holding speed: 2376 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 171 kg

B) 198 kg ✓

C) 1782 kg

D) 1188 kg

Use the following information to determine the increase in fuel required for a cruise leg for a Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) flight. Cruise leg distance: 135 NM Planned cruise TAS: 450 kt Forecast wind component: +25 kt Planned cruise fuel consumption: 5 kg/NAM Revised forecast wind component: -25 kt

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 50 kg

C) 250 kg

D) 0 kg

A twin-engined turbojet is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information and assuming a fuel ERA is available for the flight to destination B, find the minimum required Contingency Fuel. Route: from DEP to original destination A via decision point DP with optional refuel destination B. Trip Fuel DEP-A via DP: 5000 kg Trip Fuel DEP-B via DP: 4000 kg Fuel DP-A: 2000 kg

A) 200 kg

B) 150 kg

C) 100 kg ✓

D) 250 kg

A twin-engined turbojet is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information and assuming a fuel ERA is available for the flight to destination B, find the sum of the minimum required Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel. Route: from DEP to original destination A via decision point DP, with optional refuel destination B. Trip Fuel DEP-A via DP: 6000 kg Trip Fuel DEP-B via DP: 4000 kg Fuel DP-A: 3000 kg A alternate: not planned B alternate: not planned Fuel ERA: not planned Additional Fuel: not required Extra Fuel: not required

A) 6200 kg

B) 6150 kg ✓

C) 4200 kg

D) 6300 kg

Given the following information, find the minimum required Additional Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to an isolated aerodrome. Fuel consumption en-route: 2100 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h No en-route alternate exists.

A) 300 kg

B) 600 kg

C) 2400 kg

D) 4200 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the total fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in a Long-Range Jet Transport (LRJT) aeroplane? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi Fuel: 235 kg Trip Fuel: 52 319 kg Additional Fuel: 2 700 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Destination Alternate Fuel: 1 550 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 850 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 58 570 kg

B) 58 654 kg

C) 61 035 kg

D) 61 270 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 4 000 kg

B) 8 000 kg

C) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case ✓

D) 5 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 4 000 kg

B) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

C) 6 000 kg

D) 10 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310 True airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 5 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure 0.315 $/l at destination To maximize savings, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 8 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

D) 22 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310 True airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 55 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure 0.27 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 22 000 kg

B) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

C) 8 000 kg

D) 15 000 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-056, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Knowing that: Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM Cruise level: optimum Air conditioning: standard Anti-icing: OFF Temperature: ISA CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:

A) 170 400 kg

B) 176 100 kg

C) 172 300 kg ✓

D) 171 300 kg

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1c. For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30 000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately…

A) +2.3%

B) -3.6%

C) +7.6% ✓

D) +14.5%

(For this question use annex 033-060 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Take-off mass: 210 500 kg Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM Flight level: FL 330 Flight regime: "Long Range" Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt Total anti-ice: "ON" Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg Final reserve: 2 400 kg Ignore alternate and contingency fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is:

A) 30 200 kg

B) 31 840 kg ✓

C) 39 750 kg

D) 31 340 kg

(For this question use annex 033-057, 033-056, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM Cruise level: optimum Air conditioning: standard Anti-icing: OFF Temperature: ISA CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, The planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

A) 192 minutes

B) 198 minutes

C) 209 minutes ✓

D) 203 minutes

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Distance of Flight: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 55 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price at destination: 0.27 $/l The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be:

A) 0.28 $/l

B) 0.30 $/l

C) 0.29 $/l

D) 0.24 $/l ✓

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL 350 Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:

A) 20 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) 12 000 kg

D) 10 000 kg ✓

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL 350 Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg) Maximum Landing Mass: 180 000 kg Maximum Take-off Mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:

A) 2 000 kg

B) 4 000 kg

C) 0 kg ✓

D) 3 000 kg

Refer to figures. A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1 300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimise its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is:

A) 42 000 kg

B) 12 000 kg

C) 14 000 kg ✓

D) 30 000 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-048, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Given: Take-off mass: 150 000 kg Planned cruise at FL 350 Long range MACH Standard Atmosphere (ISA) CG: 37% You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM. Your flight time will be:

A) 304 minutes ✓

B) 359 minutes

C) 288 minutes

D) 298 minutes

(For this question use annex 033-045 rev. 05.11.2004). A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG = 37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass at start of descent is:

A) 193 000 kg

B) 193 800 kg

C) 193 400 kg

D) 192 500 kg ✓

(For this question use annexes 033-036, 033-037, 033-038 and 033-039 rev. 05.11.2004). Planning a MACH 0.82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg. The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions. Anti-icing: off. Fuel consumption will be:

A) 30 371 kg

B) 32 657 kg ✓

C) 27 577 kg

D) 30 117 kg

(For this question use annex 033-018 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6). In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin-jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with:

A) Landing mass at alternate, distance (NM), wind component. ✓

B) Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.

C) Distance (NM), wind component, Zero Fuel Mass.

D) Zero Fuel Mass, still air distance, wind component.

Refer to figure. Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5 % of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h.

A) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37

B) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07 ✓

C) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12

D) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52

(For this question use annex 033-028 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2). Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following data. Given: MACH 0.74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions

A) 1497 kg/h

B) 2300 kg/h ✓

C) 1150 kg/h

D) 2994 kg/h

(For this question use annex 033-033 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4). Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T: ISA Pressure altitude: 4000 ft Power: Full throttle / 25.0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM

A) 911 NM

B) 865 NM ✓

C) 739 NM

D) 851 NM

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what is the ATC endurance for a Commercial Air Transport IFR flight with a turbine-engine aeroplane? Extra fuel flow: 2500 kg/h

A) 179 min

B) 174 min

C) 165 min

D) 184 min ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given the following information, for a Commercial Air Transport operation, what is the Trip Fuel? Pressure altitude: 32000 ft Cruise procedure: Long range Ground distance: 300 NM HWC: 25 kt OAT: ISA Mass at start: 40000 kg

A) 1400 kg

B) 1419 kg

C) 1391 kg

D) 1481 kg ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 2.2, Table 2.2.1. Given the following information, what is the Trip Fuel for the planned Commercial Air Transport flight under VFR? Power setting: Full throttle / 2500 RPM GS: 130 kt Trip distance from TOC: 190 NM Cruising altitude: 8000 ft OAT: ISA Additional fuel for climb: 3.2 gal Additional fuel for approach: 10 minutes at cruise fuel flow

A) 22.6 gal

B) 25.6 gal

C) 24.8 gal ✓

D) 21.6 gal

Given: Maximum Allowable Take-off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass : 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass : 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass : 35 500 kg Estimated load : 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel : 4 900 kg Minimum take-off fuel : 7 400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

A) 11 100 kg. ✓

B) 14 400 kg.

C) 11 400 kg.

D) 8 600 kg.

The purpose of the 'Reduced Contingency Fuel (Decision point) Procedure' is to reduce the :

A) Minimum required fuel and therefore to increase the load. ✓

B) Minimum required fuel and therefore to increase the amount of additional fuel

C) Contingency fuel and therefore to increase the final reserve fuel.

D) Contingency fuel and therefore to increase the amount of possible extra fuel

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given the following information, for a Commercial Air Transport operation, how much Trip Fuel is needed for this segment? Gross mass : 40000 kg Pressure altitude: 32000 ft Cruise procedure: Longe range Segment distance : 350 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) HWC : 25 kt OAT : -59° C

A) 1613 kg ✓

B) 1667 kg

C) 1623 kg

D) 1633 kg

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 3.4. Given the following conditions and in order to complete a navigation plan, calculate the True Air Speed TAS during cruise, for a VFR flight with a multi engined piston aeroplane at FL075. OAT: +10° C Power: Economy

A) 171 kt ✓

B) 156 kt

C) 140 kt

D) 189 kt

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 35000 ft. What will be the change in air range available from 1000 kg of fuel for the following situation if the OAT increases from -55° C to -45° C? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 50 000 kg Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Forecast OAT at FL350: -55° C Wind component at FL350: -25 kt

A) An increase of 4 NAM.

B) A reduction of 11 NAM.

C) A reduction of 1 NAM. ✓

D) An increase of 10 NAM.

(For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004). Assuming the following data: Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM Cruise flight level: FL 310 Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 True airspeed: 470 kt Head wind component: 40 kt Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15° C CG: 37%. Total anti ice: ON Pack flow: HI Fuel consumption for such a flight is

A) 23 500 kg ✓

B) 21 700 kg

C) 21 500 kg

D) 19 900 kg

(For this question use annex 033-073 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5). For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component: 20 kt Temperature: ISA + 15°C Brake release mass: 64700 kg The a trip fuel, and b trip time respectively are

A) a 16200 kg b 6 h 20 min

B) a 18400 kg b 7 h 00 min

C) a 17000 kg b 6 h 45 min ✓

D) a 15800 kg b 6 h 15 min

Refer to figure. Given the following information about a Commercial Air Transport IFR flight, what is the required Taxi Fuel? Company policy: minimum taxi fuel 60 kg Expected taxi time: 10 min APU: ON for 5 min

A) 65 kg ✓

B) 55 kg

C) 50 kg

D) 60 kg

When planning a Commercial Air Transport flight to an isolated aerodrome destination, the last possible point of diversion to any available En Route Alternate ERA aerodrome should be used as the

A) Equal Time Point ETP.

B) En Route Alternate ERA diversion point.

C) Predetermined Point PDP. ✓

D) Reduced Contingency Fuel RCF point.

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-066 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1). Given: Distance C - D: 680 NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA: 0° C Headwind component: 60 kt Gross mass at C: 44 700 kg The fuel required from C - D is

A) 4000 kg

B) 3100 kg

C) 3400 kg

D) 3700 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage at the parking position: 25 minutes Prior to taxi Planned taxi time: 20 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes

A) 488 kg

B) 536 kg

C) 220 kg

D) 268 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Estimated taxi time: 10 minutes at the departure aerodrome and 5 minutes at the destination aerodrome APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min Planned APU usage at the parking position: Zero Total trip distance: 748 NM Average fuel flow: 2618 kg/h TAS: 421 kt Head wind component: 24 kt Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Alternate Fuel: 550 kg Holding fuel flow: 2250 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 5840 kg

B) 7020 kg

C) 6855 kg

D) 6965 kg ✓

The Commercial Air Transport flight shall be conducted so that the expected usable remaining fuel on arrival at the destination aerodrome is NOT less than the sum of the…

A) Contingency Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel.

B) Alternate Fuel and the Contingency Fuel.

C) Alternate Fuel, Contingency Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel.

D) Alternate Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel. ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 2000 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM: 2000 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 2900 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 2600 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 950 kg Trip Fuel TF: 350 kg Minimum Block Fuel BF: 500 kg

A) 600 kg.

B) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

C) 400 kg. ✓

D) 450 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aircraft, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3 780 kg Fuel to alternate: 987 kg Taxi Fuel: 120 kg Fuel flow at 1 500 feet above destination alternate aerodrome: 2 232 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6192 kg ✓

B) 6003 kg

C) 7119 kg

D) 4887 kg

Refer to figure or CAP697 file 4.3.1B. Given the following information: Twin jet aeroplane Zero Fuel Mass: 50000 kg Landing mass at alternate: 52000 kg Final reserve fuel: 2000 kg Alternate fuel: 1000 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary fuel: 0 kg Flight to destination: Distance: 720 NM True course: 030° W/V: 340°/30 kt Long range cruise FL 330 Outside air temperature: -30° C Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning

A) 4800 kg, 01 h 54 min ✓

B) 5100 kg, 01 h 58 min

C) 4600 kg, 02 h 06 min

D) 4400 kg, 02 h 03 min

Refer to figure. Assuming no significant change in fuel consumption, what would be the planned remaining fuel at waypoint 40N 050W?

A) 25.3 tonnes

B) 29.7 tonnes ✓

C) 29.9 tonnes

D) 25.1 tonnes

(For this question use annex 033-011 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1). Given: Flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280: 48 min Cruise procedure is long range cruise LRC Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kg Find the distance in nautical air miles NAM for this leg and the fuel consumption:

A) 355 NAM; 2 100 kg

B) 345 NAM; 2 000 kg. ✓

C) 350 NAM; 2 000 kg

D) 437 NAM; 2 100 kg

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 80 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 50000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 822 kg ✓

B) 900 kg

C) 744 kg

D) 780 kg

A Commercial Air Transport operator has a fleet of turbine engine aeroplanes. For this operator, an isolated aerodrome is one for which the alternate and final fuel reserve required to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than the fuel to fly for

A) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, excluding Final Reserve Fuel.

B) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is more.

C) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including Final Reserve Fuel. ✓

D) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is less.

You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions : Dry Operating Mass : 2800 kg Trip Fuel : 300 kg Traffic Load : 400 kg Maximum Take-off Mass : 4200 kg Maximum Landing Mass : 3700 kg

A) 500 kg

B) 700 kg

C) 1000 kg

D) 800 kg ✓

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-067 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3). Given: Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Distance B to C : 800 NM Temperature : -55°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg The fuel required from B to C is

A) 4975 kg

B) 6125 kg

C) 4945 kg

D) 6000 kg ✓

Refer to figure. For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind: 25 kt Temperature: ISA -10°C Brake release mass: 66000 kg The a trip fuel and b trip time respectively are:

A) a 15800 kg b 6 h 20 min

B) a 15000 kg b 6 h 00 min

C) a 14000 kg b 5 h 35 min ✓

D) a 14600 kg b 5 h 45 min

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 875 000 lb MLM: 652 000 lb MZFM: 555 100 lb DOM: 394 100 lb Traffic Load: 155 215 lb Trip Fuel: 198 620 lb Planned T/O Fuel: 226 195 lb Taxi Fuel: 1600 lb Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 470 lb per 1000 lb of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 377 750 lb

A) 75110 lb

B) 110 411 lb

C) 5785 lb

D) 99490 lb ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. What will be the approximate change in air distance available from 1000 kg of fuel for the following situation if the tailwind component increases from 45 kt to 65 kt? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 50000 kg Cruise level: FL370 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Forecast OAT at FL370: ISA

A) 0 NAM. ✓

B) An increase of 20 NAM.

C) An increase of 9 NAM.

D) A decrease of 20 NAM.

Which of the following is(are) Type A approach(es)? 1. ILS with MDH = 270 ft 2. VOR with MDH = 250 ft 3. ILS with MDH < 250 ft

A) 2 and 3.

B) Only 3.

C) 1 and 3.

D) 1 and 2. ✓

Refer to figure. Refer to AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-3Q from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the difference between EHØ48 and EHØ8Ø?

A) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for B737. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-over waypoint.

B) EHØ8Ø and EHØ48 are both used by B737, other aircraft only use EHØ48.

C) EHØ8Ø is a fly-by waypoint for all aircraft.

D) EHØ8Ø is a fly-over waypoint for B737 only. Other aircraft use EHØ48 instead, which is a fly-by waypoint. ✓

Refer to figure. Which of the following is the frequency of Ibiza NDB?

A) IBA 117.8 kHz

B) IBA 117.8 MHz

C) IZA 394 MHz

D) IZA 394 kHz ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL80, with a restriction to maintain 2 000 ft until passing ALT VOR. The QNH is 1040 hPa, the aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 10 NM before ASTRO

B) 6 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM before VILNA ✓

D) 1 NM after VILNA

Refer to ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You lose engine power at 6500 ft over GERVU as you approach for runway 10. Which IAF will ATC likely give you?

A) ALICANTE (ATE)

B) ALTET (ALT) IAF ✓

C) BESOR IAF

D) VILNA IAF

What is an advantage of using GNSS FMC equipment in flight?

A) There is NO need for a route check as this is an automatic function.

B) The aircraft systems require less data from the Air Data Computer.

C) The aircraft's position can be continuously displayed. ✓

D) In-flight weather is more easily detected and avoided.

An aircraft is flying at 2600 ft with altimeter set to 1000 hPa (QNH of an nearby airfield at 600 ft). Considering that the air mass at that airfield is on average 8°C warmer than standard, calculate the aircraft's true altitude over the field.

A) 2520 ft

B) 2595 ft

C) 2760 ft

D) 2664 ft ✓

What is an ILS CAT I approach with a DH of 340 ft?

A) Type B 3D approach.

B) Type B 2D approach.

C) Type A 3D approach. ✓

D) Type A 2D approach.

Refer to figure. The figure shows a partially completed navigation plan from Ajaccio aerodrome (LFKJ) in Corsica with elevation 17 ft. If your rate of climb is 925 ft/min, at what distance from AJO will you reach FL130?

A) 24 NM

B) 22 NM

C) 20 NM ✓

D) 18 NM

What does "BIMON CDR 1 DUMBO 17:00-23:00" mean?

A) FIS route.

B) Conditional RNAV route.

C) Permanently plannable CDR during designated times. ✓

D) Permanently unplannable CDR during designated times.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have been requested to perform a flight overflying the Rennes VOR (REN) (N48°04' W001°45') and the BOLRO waypoint (N50°00' W001°42'). Which airway would you file in your flight plan?

A) UN862

B) UT507

C) UP87 ✓

D) UY110

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) at IAF for Runway 28 from VLC VOR?

A) 5 900 ft

B) FL100

C) 6 500 ft ✓

D) FL70

Refer to Amsterdam- chart 16-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following are approach lights provided for Amsterdam RWY 18C?

A) Standard ALSF II

B) HIALS ✓

C) PAPIS

D) HIALS Calvert II

Refer to figure. (For this question use the chart "E(LO) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017). A route connects the waypoint AMGAR (42°33'18.40"N, 003°15'12.00"W) with TABANERA VOR (42°01'39.00"N, 004°06'33.00"W). What kind of route is this?

A) Conditional ATS route.

B) RNAV ATS route. ✓

C) Direct ATS route.

D) ATS route used by non B-RNAV equipped aircraft.

Given the following information, what is the Ground Speed of the aircraft? TAS: 150 kt Heading: 090 Wind: 030/50 kt

A) 109 kt.

B) 139 kt.

C) 129 kt. ✓

D) 119 kt.

Refer to ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is not P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 10?

A) SOPET 1G ✓

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C

Refer to ALICANTE charts 11-1, 11-2, 13-1, 13-2 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You have followed Alicante arrival RESTU 1Q which leads to the initial approach fix ALTET. Which approaches can you use from there?

A) ILS Y and VOR Y. ✓

B) ILS Z and VOR Z.

C) ILS Y and VOR Z.

D) ILS Z and VOR Y.

Refer to figure or GSPRM Alicante (LEAL) STAR 10-2C. While briefing the GERVU 1M STAR, if the training captain asks about the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) from GERVU, the correct response is…

A) FL75 ✓

B) 6900 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 4000 ft

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial true course from KEFLAVÍK (BIKF, N63°59.1' W022°36.3') to AMSTERDAM (EHAM, N52°18.5′ E004°45.8′)?

A) 110°

B) 103°

C) 122°

D) 116° ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". On a flight on airway P600 you are passing TURNBERRY VOR (TRN, N55°19' W004°47') and intersections GIRVA, TUNSO and BLACA. What is the MEA between GIRVA and TUNSO?

A) 5000 ft

B) 6000 ft

C) FL60 ✓

D) FL70

Refer to figure High_5_AT. Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "AT HI 5". Find the initial magnetic course from BENBECULA (N57°27.9' W007°23') to KEFLAVÍK (N63°59.1' W022°36.3')?

A) 303º

B) 302º

C) 322º ✓

D) 317º

Refer to chart E(LO)2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Find the magnetic bearing and distance from Trent (TNT) VOR/DME (53°03'N 001°40'W) to waypoint TIMPO (52°33'N 001°10'W).

A) 149°M / 35 NM ✓

B) 329°M / 25 NM

C) 149°M / 25 NM

D) 329°M / 35 NM

An aircraft on a track of 204°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1033 hPa and OAT is ISA + 20°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL320

C) FL280

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE charts 10-3C, 10-3E from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from Alicante (LEAL) towards the north-east. The aircraft is fully P-RNAV equipped and operational. What is a suitable SID if departing from Runway 28?

A) SOPET 1G

B) SOPET 1F

C) MITOS 2A

D) MITOS 1C ✓

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category A aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 352 ft

C) RVR 1500 m

D) RVR 800 m ✓

Refer to figure. When should a temperature error correction be applied to an approach?

A) Between -10ºC and -15ºC

B) Colder than -10ºC

C) Between 0ºC and -10ºC ✓

D) Warmer than -10ºC

Refer to AMSTERDAM 10-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is departing from MUNSTER Airport and is heading west. The aircraft experiences a critical fuel situation and cannot return to its departure airport. The crew decide to land at Amsterdam Airport. Which STAR should the crew expect? Choose the shortest STARs and the ones closest to the departure airport.

A) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2A ✓

B) NORKU 2A, REKKEN 2B

C) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2A

D) NORKU 2B, REKKEN 2B

A pilot is being vectored in controlled airspace and is told to descend below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but not below the Minimum Radar Vectoring Altitude (MRVA). What should the pilot do?

A) Follow the commands of the controller ONLY if the commander thinks it is safe regarding terrain separation. ✓

B) Follow the commands of the controller who is fully responsible for terrain separation.

C) Turn around and leave the controlled airspace.

D) Declare an emergency and climb back to MSA.

Refer to figures or AMSTERDAM - Charts 10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B, 10-2C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Paris to AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) but due to operational limitations, they are taking all approaches from the west. Which routes should you use?

A) DENUT 1A, HELEN 1A, PESER 2A, PUTTY 1A

B) LAMSO 2A, MOLIX 2A, REDFA 1A ✓

C) TOPPA 2A

D) REKKEN 2A, REKKEN 2B, NORKU 2A, NORKU 2B

Refer to STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: D Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the track and distance from AMGAR to Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) 070° / 50 NM

B) 045° / 30 NM

C) 059° / 40 NM

D) 059° / 20 NM ✓

The ATC instructs the pilot of an aircraft flying in IMC and over mountainous terrain to descend from FL100 to FL70. The temperature is ISA +15°C and the QNH, reported from a nearby airfield with an elevation of 300 ft, is 975 hPa. What is the true altitude at FL70 that the pilot must use to confirm a safe terrain clearance before descending to the new flight level? Use 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) 6195 ft ✓

B) 5530 ft

C) 7810 ft

D) 5860 ft

When must a pilot apply corrections due to temperature variations?

A) When the temperature is below ISA -15 ✓

B) When the temperature is over ISA +15

C) When the temperature is between ISA -5 and ISA +5

D) When the temperature is ISA +15

Refer to E(LO)-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are completing a low level flight over the sea and have just turned south towards land. Which frequency should you call overhead GOLVO (N54°25′ E003°38′)?

A) London 134.25

B) Scottish 121.32

C) Dutch Mil 128.335

D) Amsterdam Info 119.17 ✓

When should a temperature correction be applied to the altitude at the IAF to provide adequate terrain clearance?

A) when the temperature at the runway surface is significantly higher than ISA

B) when the temperature at the top of descent is higher than ISA

C) when the temperature at the top of cruise is lower than ISA

D) when the temperature at the airport is significantly lower than ISA ✓

Refer to figures or ALICANTE - charts 10-2B, 13-2, 13-3, 13-4, 13-5 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which approaches can be made from a CALLES 2N / VALENCIA 2N STAR?

A) VOR Y RWY 28; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

B) VOR Y RWY 10; VOR Z RWY 28; VOR Y RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28

C) VOR Z; VOR X; VOR Y

D) VOR Z RWY 28; VOR X RWY 28 ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing the AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) at 0600 hrs to Aberdeen joining P600 at BUDON. Which frequency do you call after departure?

A) Aberdeen 119.05 ✓

B) Aberdeen 134.10

C) Scottish 125.72

D) Aberdeen 128.30

An airway in mountainous terrain is designed so that the lowest level is above the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA). What is the approximate minimum clearance used in calculating the MOCA?

A) 1000 ft clearance over obstacles up to and including 5000 ft; and 2000 ft clearance for obstacles over 5000 ft in elevation. ✓

B) 1500 ft for all mountainous terrain.

C) 1500 ft for terrain elevations less than 5000 ft; 2000 ft for terrain elevations greater than 5000 ft.

D) 1000 ft for all mountainous terrain.

Refer to figure. Which approach lighting system is installed at Runway 21?

A) CAT III.

B) CAT II.

C) CAT I with barrette at the center. ✓

D) Simple approach light.

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If you take off from Valence (LFLU, N44°55' E004°58′) and head south to join airway B16 via VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47'), which sector would you be in contact with?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32 ✓

An IFR flight has been given descent instructions below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation?

A) The Controller and the PIC should accept the routing.

B) The Controller and the PIC should not accept the routing.

C) The PIC and the PIC should accept the routing.

D) The PIC and the routing should not be accepted. ✓

Refer to Tromso, Norway (ENTC) SID chart 10-3A from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. According to your calculations, your aircraft can climb with a gradient of 6.5% up to 4000 ft. Considering your aircraft's performance, which route should you take when departing from Tromso?

A) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 210 kt up to TC704 ✓

B) TC707, TC704, TC706, BAREG with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707 then 210 kt up to TC704

C) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC708

D) TC707, TC708, TC710, LOMVI with a speed restriction of 185 kt up to TC707

During the preparation of an IFR flight, the track indicated between two VOR stations on the IFR map is 137°. The applicable variation is 6°E. The reported wind is 210°/25 kt. The planned cruising speed for this leg is 175 kt. To keep the track, the wind correction angle is (1) _. The corresponding groundspeed is (2) _.

A) (1) 8° to the left; (2) 183 kt

B) (1) 14° to the left; (2) 181 kt

C) (1) 2° to the right; (2) 166 kt

D) (1) 8° to the right; (2) 164 kt ✓

Given an LNAV/VNAV approach with a temperature deviation of ISA -15, a charted Decision Altitude (DA) of 530 ft, and a Decision Height (DH) of approximately 432 ft, calculate the new Decision Altitude.

A) Around 430 ft

B) 530 ft

C) 550 ft

D) Higher than 550 ft ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which sector would you be in contact with when flying overhead VOR Montélimar (N44°33' E004°47')?

A) Sector LD Provence 126.20

B) Valence AFIS 120.1

C) Sector MO Marseille 123.90 ✓

D) Sector LS Marseille 128.32

Given the following data, what is the TAS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: ISA -10 C Mach Number: M 0.77 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 430 kt ✓

B) 420 kt

C) 450 kt

D) 460 kt

A pilot is being radar vectored in controlled airspace below the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) but above the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). The temperature is ISA -10°C. Who is responsible for terrain separation and what should the commander do?

A) Commander is responsible and commander should always accept.

B) ATC is responsible and commander should always accept.

C) Commander is responsible for terrain separation and commander should accept.

D) ATC is responsible and commander should reject instruction if it is dangerous, because temperature below ISA. ✓

What is the range calculation from CAP697 for class B multi-engine aircraft based on?

A) It is based on the ground range

B) It is valid for all weights

C) It is derived from from the pressure altitude and power setting ✓

D) It is applicable for all temperatures

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the section where ATF NDB is located?

A) 1700 ft AAL

B) 2300 ft

C) 1700 ft AMSL ✓

D) 1700 m

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO) 13" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are flying from Elba VOR (ELB, N42°43' E010°23') to Bastia VOR (BTA, N42°34' E009°28'). When and who should you contact for authorisation to enter the next FIR, if it has not yet been provided?

A) AT BTA VOR, contact Marseille on 133.800.

B) AFTER waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 133.800.

C) AT waypoint XOPTA, contact Marseille on 130.955.

D) AT or BEFORE waypoint MOULE, contact Marseille on 130.955. ✓

Refer to figure or Chart "E(LO)-1" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are departing from AOKA MIZU oil rig (N57°55′W 000°35′) and going to Aberdeen VOR ADN joining P600 at BUDON. Given the following information, what is the time needed to go from BUDON to ADN? TAS: 140 kt True wind: 170°/14 kt

A) 30 mins

B) 28 mins

C) 24 mins

D) 26 mins ✓

Refer to Chart "E(LO) 5" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Determine the radial and distance at AMGAR from Vitoria (VRA) (N42°44' W002°53').

A) Radial: 059°; distance: 70 NM.

B) Radial: 236°; distance: 70 NM.

C) Radial: 239°; distance: 20 NM. ✓

D) Radial: 059°; distance: 20 NM.

Refer to figures or E(LO)1 and E(LO)2 charts from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the approach frequency for Durham Tees Valley (EGNV, N54°31' W001°26')?

A) 118.85 ✓

B) 347.50

C) 132.37

D) 120.75

Which temperature correction must be applied during an instrument approach?

A) Warmer than the temperature at aerodrome level.

B) Warmer than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

C) Colder than the temperature at aerodrome level. ✓

D) Colder than the temperature at the Top of Descent.

Refer to chart E(LO)3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. After passing Biggin VOR (BIG, N51º20' E000º02') on a northern heading (349°), what is the next waypoint on the N16 route?

A) CLN

B) LAM

C) BPK ✓

D) OCK

Refer to chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What type of airway links FARO VOR (VFA, N37°01' W007°58') and SEVILLE VOR (SVL, N37°26' W005°46')?

A) Non-ATS route

B) Non-RNAV route ✓

C) Conditional

D) RNAV ATS

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3D from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are climbing on SID ANDIK 2G to FL380 with an average TAS of 300 knots and a 25-knot tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). Calculate the ground distance after ANDIK where you will achieve FL380.

A) 100 NGM

B) 90 NGM

C) 80 NGM

D) 73 NGM ✓

An IFR flight is planned across terrain where the maximum elevation is 4600 ft. The forecast temperature is ISA +12°C, and the Minimum Obstacle Clearance required is 1500 ft. A nearby aerodrome elevation 875 ft reports a QNH of 1025 hPa. What is the minimum flight level that could be planned for the cruise?

A) FL60 ✓

B) FL40

C) FL50

D) FL80

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2F SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is reauthorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 20 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 90 NGM

B) 70 NAM

C) 100 NGM

D) 76 NGM ✓

Refer to figure. What is the correct arrival route when arriving via DISUN?

A) KOGOL 4A

B) MERSI 4A

C) OSDER 4A ✓

D) IRBIR 5A

Refer to figure. What speed restriction has to be considered during an ILS approach on runway 19 when passing the check altitude of 1973 ft?

A) No speed restriction

B) Maximum 130 kt

C) Maximum 150 kt ✓

D) Maximum 180 kt

Your ETO overhead the next waypoint is 15:46 Zulu, and ATC asks you to be there at 15:43 Zulu. How do you handle the FMS to meet the requested time?

A) Ignore the ATC request, as the FMS is not equipped to handle inflight ETO changes.

B) The FMS can only calculate times for the initial flight plan and does not support recalculations.

C) The FMS cannot recalculate ETO changes during the flight; you must manually calculate and adjust speed.

D) Program a new speed into the FMS, which will calculate a new ETO that matches the time requested by ATC. ✓

Refer to figure or to Amsterdam Chart 10-3C from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is cleared for the ANDIK2E SID to an altitude of 6000 ft and is then is re-authorized to climb to FL330. You are climbing with an average TAS of 381 kts and a 30 kt tailwind. The climb is 103 NAM (Nautical Air Miles). What is the total distance covered after waypoint ANDIK until top-of-climb?

A) 65 NAM

B) 73 NGM ✓

C) 58 NGM

D) 65 NGM

An aircraft on a track of 240°(M) has to overfly an obstacle of 25 700 ft with a clearance of 2000 ft. The QNH is 1 003 hPa and OAT is ISA - 12°C. What is the minimum flight level (FL) at which the aircraft may fly in RVSM airspace? Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft

A) FL310

B) FL290

C) FL320

D) FL300 ✓

Refer to figure or STUTTGART - Chart 12-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. A flight crew are planning to fly the RNP approach for Runway 25 at STUTTGART (EDDS). Using the data below, what is the minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence the approach? Aircraft approach category: B Aircraft approach capability: CAT IIIB and LNAV/VNAV No technical downgrades to aircraft No technical downgrades at EDDS

A) 1200 m RVR ✓

B) 1900 m meteorological visibility

C) 1300 m RVR

D) 1900 m RVR

If flying an aircraft not equipped with automatic temperature correction, to which altitudes should the PIC apply temperature correction?

A) Only at the step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF).

B) Only at MDH/MDA or DH/DA.

C) Only at the intermediate section.

D) At MDH/MDA or DH/DA and step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF). ✓

Refer to figures or Stuttgart approach charts 11-1, 11-1A, 11-2, 11-2A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft departed from Stuttgart airport on Runway 07, but due to a passenger's serious illness, the pilot decided to turn back and land at Stuttgart airport following the ILS CAT III Rwy 07 approach procedure. Which approach chart should the pilot use?

A) 11-2A

B) 11-2

C) 11-1A ✓

D) 11-1

Refer to Aberdeen Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. If an aircraft is on a magnetic bearing of 110° at a distance of 15 NM from Aberdeen aerodrome (EGPD), what is its Minimum Radar Altitude?

A) 4100 ft

B) 2800 ft

C) 2500 ft ✓

D) 2300 ft

Refer to the figure or Chart E(LO) 1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are on airway Y906 and flying a magnetic track of 124° towards RIMOL. After RIMOL you plan to to fly inbound to Glasgow VOR (GOW, 115.4 MHz). Which radial will you be on?

A) 191° R

B) 010° R ✓

C) 118° R

D) 011° R

Refer to figure or Norway, Tromso Chart 11-1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the minimum visibility for an approach category D aircraft, when approaching to Tromso airport following ILS Rwy 01 approach procedure with the airport's PAPI lights inoperative?

A) RVR 1700 m

B) 402 ft

C) RVR 1000 m ✓

D) RVR 800 m

Refer to figure or to chart AT(HI) 5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM. What is the true initial great circle track from the Bjornoya NDB to your position (74°N 015°E), given that the initial great circle track to the beacon is 057°(M)?

A) 258°M

B) 245°T

C) 230°M

D) 249°T ✓

How can RNAV 1, RNAV 2 SID or STAR, RNP 1 and RNP 2 routes be modified by pilots?

A) Manually, by inserting or deleting waypoints, in response to an ATC clearance. ✓

B) By deleting waypoints and manually entries of latitude and longitude with ATC clearance.

C) Manually, by inserting range and bearing to a new waypoint, in response to an ATC clearance.

D) By inserting or deleting waypoints in the database and/or obtaining a Rho-Theta Fix.

An aircraft on a track of 046°(M) has to fly over an obstacle of 4600 ft with a clearance of 1000 ft. The QNH is 990 hPa and the temperature is ISA +15°C. What is the minimum safe flight level at which the aircraft may fly? Assume 30 ft per hPa.

A) FL60

B) FL50

C) FL70 ✓

D) FL80

Where can VORs be referenced to the True North?

A) New Scotland.

B) Alaska only.

C) Southern California.

D) Northern Canada. ✓

Given the following information, what is the GS of the aeroplane? FL390 OAT: -40°C Mach number: M 0.82 Wind component: -42 kt

A) 452 kt

B) 530 kt

C) 446 kt ✓

D) 488 kt

Refer to ALICANTE - chart 10-3C from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft is following a departure route with the following constraints: minimum altitude at D9.5 ALT is 3100 ft; maximum speed during the turn onto radial 246 from ALT is 220 kt; and the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) between D9.5 ALT and D6.3 ALT is 5900 ft. Based on this information, which departure route is being followed, and from which runway is the aircraft departing?

A) RW10, MITOS 2A.

B) RW28, MITOS 2A.

C) RW28, MITOS 1C. ✓

D) RW10, MITOS 1C.

You are flying at FL80 over a hilly area with the highest obstacle at 5600 ft. The QNH at a nearby aerodrome (elevation 2000 ft) is 1003 hPa, and the temperature is ISA -11°C. Considering the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA), is your vertical separation from the obstacle sufficient?

A) No, because the pressure and temperature corrections reduce your altitude below the obstacle height.

B) Yes, because FL80 corresponds to approximately 8000 ft regardless of temperature.

C) No, because the corrected true altitude provides only about 1672 ft of clearance.

D) Yes, because the obstacle clearance is more than 1000 ft. ✓

Refer to figure or E(LO)14 Chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the shortest route from Araxos (ARA) VOR/DME (N38°06'31" E021°25'24") to Didimon (DDM) VOR/DME (N37°28'44" E023°13'04")?

A) ARA - N604 - KOR - G85 - DDM ✓

B) ARA - B34 - DDM

C) ARA - L612 - TRL - J61 - DDM

D) ARA - J52 - IXONI - L53 - KOR - G85

Which statement is correct for an aircraft conducting an approach into Stuttgart if its VNAV capability is unavailable and only LNAV can be used?

A) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

B) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments.

C) It will follow a 2D non-precision flight WITHOUT vertical guidance provided by on-board instruments. ✓

D) It will follow a 3D non-precision flight with guidance by ground augmentation.

Refer to figure. If BUBOK is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to BUBOK has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the greatest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T

C) DARAX1T ✓

D) DESDI4T

Refer to figure. If LADVI is the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), which Standard Arrival Route (STAR) to LADVI has the shortest distance?

A) MIADA2T

B) BUBIN3T ✓

C) DARAX1T

D) DESDI4T

An aeroplane is maintaining M 0.80 at FL360, where the OAT is -55°C, the crew are instructed by ATC to climb to and maintain FL380, where the OAT is -52°C and to maintain a speed of M 0.76. By how much will the TAS change?

A) 20 kt increase

B) 15 kt increase

C) 15 kt decrease

D) 20 kt decrease ✓

Refer to figures or TROMSO - Charts 10-2B, 10-2C, 10-2D, and 10-2E from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which STARs may be available, if the surface wind comes from 350°M?

A) AMIMO 2M

B) AMIMO 7Y; AMIMO 7Z

C) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X

D) AMIMO 4L; AMIMO 9X; AMIMO 1W ✓

Refer to figure or Amsterdam Chart 11-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which of the following statements is correct, for an aircraft category C?

A) Once established on the glide path, descent can be initiated at the pilot's discretion.

B) After passing LCTR, turn outbound heading 310°, then intercept the localizer inbound on 183° after 1 minute. ✓

C) Descend to 3000 feet at LTCR.

D) After passing LCTR, descend to a height of 2000 feet.

An aircraft cruising at flight level 350 is cleared to climb to FL380, despite this being higher than its optimum cruising altitude. Upon reaching FL380, the aircraft begins to experience clear air turbulence (CAT). Soon after, it is affected by Mach buffet. What could reasonably explain this situation?

A) Descending into denser air reduced aerodynamic damping.

B) The aircraft exceeded its MMO. ✓

C) An acceleration of more than 1.3g is experienced.

D) The CAT lowers the optimum altitude.

Refer to figure or chart E(HI)15 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) along airway P727 from OSMUS waypoint (N53°53.7' E026°43.4') to PNK VOR/DME (N52°09.2' E026° 07.8')?

A) FL380

B) FL390

C) FL410

D) FL430 ✓

Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 800 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA

D) 10 NM after VILNA ✓

Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category B aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 175 kt. What is the required visibility and MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 901 ft, 3600 m.

B) 890 ft, 3600 m.

C) 880 ft, 2400 m. ✓

D) 891 ft, 2400 m.

Refer to Chart "E LO 2" from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. During an IFR flight northbound on airway P1, between TULIP and MONIL, you are approximately 10 NM north of TULIP. Using the ELO 2 chart, which frequency should you contact?

A) AMSTERDAM 125.75 MHz

B) AMSTERDAM 124.880 MHz

C) AMSTERDAM 123.705 MHz ✓

D) DUTCH MIL 128.355 MHz

Refer to Amsterdam Chart 10-1R from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the Radar Minimum Altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic bearing of 100° from Schiphol aerodrome (EHAM) and at a distance of 13 NM from the aerodrome?

A) 3000 ft

B) 1700 ft

C) 2500 ft

D) 2000 ft ✓

In the aviation context, what does MSAW mean?

A) Minimum Surface Area Warning

B) Minimum Surface Altitude Warning

C) Minimum Safe Altitude Warning ✓

D) Minimum Sector Area Warning

Refer to figure. What does the RNAV symbol in line A refer to?

A) Fly-by waypoint. ✓

B) Fly-over waypoint.

C) Compulsory waypoint.

D) Non-compulsory waypoint Fly-over waypoint.

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual - Chart "E LO 2". The section of a routing is via airway T256 from NORBO to DEAN CROSS (DCS, N54°43' W003°20'). What is the initial true track course after passing NORBO?

A) 138°

B) 147°

C) 144°

D) 141° ✓

Refer to figure. A pilot is flying the route depicted. After completing the first leg, the pilot realizes that the actual wind conditions differ from the forecast used for flight planning. On the leg between the Fruges Windfarm and Wimereux, the pilot checks the aircraft's satellite navigation system and notes a ground speed of 115 kt. When should the pilot expect to arrive at the turning point over Wimereux?

A) 14:56

B) 14:45

C) 14:42 ✓

D) 14:43

Refer to figure or ALICANTE Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the initial minimum climb gradient on the CATON 2C SID from Alicante (LEAL) aerodrome?

A) 5.5% ✓

B) 5.0%

C) 4.5%

D) 4.0%

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)1 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What are the approximate distance and magnetic track for a flight from Sumburgh (SUM) VOR/DME (59°52'44"N 001°17'44"W) to the Ninian North oil rig (60°57'38"N 001°27'44"E)?

A) 120 NM / 270°M

B) 100 NM / 053°M ✓

C) 55 NM / 350°M

D) 95 NM / 065°M

Refer to figure or Chart E(LO)5 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance of the route segments defined by the waypoints LUKUM, ROMAM, LUXAN and the LSE VOR/DME?

A) 11 NM – 22 NM – 16 NM

B) 22 NM – 11 NM – 16 NM

C) 16 NM – 22 NM – 11 NM

D) 11 NM – 16 NM – 22 NM ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. You are cleared for a departure via SID CATON 3A to ALT VOR/DME without exceeding FL70. After passing ALT VOR/DME, you are re-cleared to continue climbing at FL180. If QNH is 1040 hPa, Rate of Climb is 1200 ft/min and GS is 151 kt, where will be the Top of Climb (ToC)?

A) 3 NM after ALT VOR/DME.

B) Overhead VILNA.

C) 3 NM before VILNA.

D) 3 NM after VILNA. ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE - Chart 10-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Departing on SID ASTRO 4A, you are cleared to FL180, with a restriction to maintain FL70 until passing ALT VOR. The aircraft climbs with an average ROC of 1200 ft/min, and the ground speed is 133 kt. When will you reach the top of climb (ToC)? Approximately...

A) 17 NM after VILNA

B) 7 NM before VILNA

C) 1 NM after VILNA ✓

D) 10 NM after VILNA

Refer to figure. What is the minimum radar altitude at the point 15 DME from the VOR on a magnetic bearing of 240°?

A) 4000 ft

B) 5000 ft

C) 6000 ft

D) 3000 ft ✓

Refer to figure or ALICANTE 10-2C chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the distance to the IAF when performing GERVU 1M STAR procedure, provided the aircraft is RNAV equipped?

A) 20 NM

B) 63 NM ✓

C) 43 NM

D) 59.7 NM

Refer to figure or Jeppesen GSPRM Training Route Manual Amsterdam (16-2). You are flying an approach in AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (EHAM) with a category C aircraft. Due to problems with the flight controls, your minimum approach speed is 185 kt. What is the required MDA for a circle-to-land approach for runway 18C?

A) 891 ft

B) 880 ft

C) 890 ft ✓

D) 901 ft

Refer to figure or chart E(LO)6 from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An aircraft takes off from FARO (VFA) VOR/DME (N37°00'49" W007°58'30") to SEVILLE (SVL) VOR/DME (N37°25'40" W005°45'44"). What is the true track that must be followed?

A) 085°T

B) 080°T

C) 070°T

D) 077°T ✓

The highest obstacle located within 8 km of a specific IFR route above mountainous terrain is 1220 ft. What is the minimum altitude providing the required obstacle clearance?

A) 3300 ft

B) 3220 ft ✓

C) 2220 ft

D) 2300 ft

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM Chart 13-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. What is the DH for the VOR straight-in approach on runway 18R?

A) 2013 ft

B) 2000 ft

C) 703 ft ✓

D) 690 ft

An aircraft is flying at FL80 where the outside air temperature is ISA +15°C. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 1020 hPa. Calculate the aircraft’s true altitude. (Assume 30 ft/hpa)

A) 7750 ft

B) 8000 ft

C) 8210 ft

D) 8700 ft ✓

What does the NOTAM "BASIC GNSS UNAVBL in a given area on Jan 5 from 17:30 to 20:00 UTC" imply for any aircraft operating in that area and time period?

A) GNSS may still be used en-route, but is prohibited only for instrument approaches during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5.

B) Only SBAS corrections are unavailable; basic GNSS remains authorized for en-route and approach, provided RAIM is available.

C) The NOTAM is advisory; pilots may continue to use GNSS if a preflight RAIM prediction shows availability.

D) Aircraft cannot rely on GNSS for navigation during 17:30 to 20:00 UTC on Jan 5 and must use alternative means of navigation. ✓

An aircraft plans to fly from Sardinia to Tunisia along the airway G650. What type of ATS route is this?

A) RNP route

B) Conditional route

C) Non-RNAV (conventional) route ✓

D) RNAV route

Refer to figure or AMSTERDAM - Chart 10-2 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. Which standard arrival route is correct when arriving via ROBIS?

A) REKKEN 2A or NORKU 2A

B) REKKEN 2A

C) NORKU 2A ✓

D) EELDE 1A

Refer to figure. An aircraft flies overhead the MOU VOR/DME with an ETO of 18:01 and an ATO of 17:59. A diversion around a CB cloud increases the ATO overhead MOKIP by 3 minutes more than the ETO. The pilot decides to update the ETO times after MOKIP. Assuming that there is not any additional delay, what will the updated ETO be overhead KOGAS FIR boundary?

A) 18:16

B) 18:21 ✓

C) 18:15

D) 18:18

An aircraft descends from FL100, where the outside air temperature is −21°C, to FL70. The QNH at a nearby station with an elevation of 300 ft AMSL is 975 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa = 30 ft, calculate is the aircraft’s true altitude at FL70.

A) 6000 ft

B) 7000 ft

C) 5860 ft

D) 5510 ft ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 minutes Climb to cruise level: 7 minutes Cruise distance: 130 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: 10 kt tailwind Anticipated hold at the alternate: 11 minutes Descent to the alternate: 7 minutes Approach to the alternate: 8 minutes

A) 89 minutes ✓

B) 78 minutes

C) 83 minutes

D) 97 minutes

Refer to figure. A twin-jet aeroplane is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information, find the sum of the required Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel. TAS: 400 kt Wind DEP-DP-DEST: 50 kt tailwind Wind DP-A: 20 kt tailwind Fuel consumption: 1500 kg/h Alternate Fuel for DEST: 1000 kg Alternate Fuel for A: 900 kg Additional Fuel for DEST: not required Additional Fuel for A: 900 kg Extra Fuel: not required

A) 3412 kg ✓

B) 4050 kg

C) 3250 kg

D) 3395 kg

Refer to figure. Determine the amount of the Final Reserve Fuel (FINRES) for this Commercial Air Transport jet aircraft.

A) 2417 kg

B) 1714 kg

C) 1611 kg

D) 1174 kg ✓

Calculate the allowed mass for take-off, given the following data for a Medium-Range Jet Transport Aeroplane(MRJT). Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 61688 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass (MTOM): 66990 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 65317 kg Performance limited Take-Off Mass (TOM): 64900 kg Performance limited Landing Mass (LM): 67300 kg Trip Fuel: 3800 kg Block Fuel: 6000 kg

A) 69117 kg

B) 66990 kg

C) 64900 kg ✓

D) 67688 kg

Given the following information, calculate the total fuel for engine start and taxi. Start fuel: 20 litres Taxi fuel flow: 150 litres per hour Taxi time: 10 minutes Fuel density: 0.82 kilograms per litre

A) 25 litres

B) 36.9 litres

C) 45 kilograms

D) 36.9 kilograms ✓

During the pre-flight preparation, the pilot calculates a take-off fuel of 53 US gallons. Considering a fuel density of 6 lb per US gallon, this equals…

A) 144 kg. ✓

B) 318 kg.

C) 701 kg.

D) 24 kg.

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel?

A) Trip Fuel = TOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

B) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

C) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Taxi Fuel – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel

D) Trip Fuel = TOM – DOM – Traffic Load – Contingency Fuel – Alternate Fuel – Final Reserve Fuel – Extra Fuel ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required at the destination airport for a flight from Munich to London Heathrow, given the following information? Trip fuel: 3800 kg Contingency fuel: 230 kg Alternate fuel: 1200 kg Final reserve fuel: 1300 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 2730 kg.

B) 1300 kg.

C) 1530 kg.

D) 2500 kg. ✓

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 6660 kg Trip Fuel: 990 kg Block Fuel: 1540 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 7210 kg

B) 8200 kg

C) 8110 kg

D) 8175 kg ✓

Given: Dry Operating Mass: 4920 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 5740 kg Trip Fuel: 670 kg Take-Off Fuel: 1050 kg The Traffic Load is:

A) 2160 kg

B) 2480 kg

C) 820 kg ✓

D) 1340 kg

Given: Zero Fuel Mass: 4920 kg Trip Fuel: 880 kg Block Fuel: 1330 kg Taxi Fuel: 25 kg The actual Take-Off Mass is equal to:

A) 6810 kg

B) 6360 kg

C) 6225 kg ✓

D) 6250 kg

Given the following information, calculate the estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial flight. Maximum structural take-off mass: 8350 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 8350 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 6210 kg Taxi Fuel: 10 kg Contingency Fuel: 90 kg Alternate Fuel: 300 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 400 kg Trip Fuel: 780 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 8350 kg

B) 7000 kg ✓

C) 7790 kg

D) 7780 kg

Given: The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kg. Total fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 770 kg. What is the Zero Fuel Mass is:

A) 6129 kg

B) 6870 kg

C) 6899 kg ✓

D) 6420 kg

The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0.80 kg/l. If the density is 0.75 kg/l, the fuel burn will be:

A) 206 l/h

B) 235 l/h ✓

C) 220 l/h

D) 176 l/h

The fuel flow of a turbine engine is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75 and any other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow will be:

A) 200 kg/h ✓

B) 267 kg/h

C) 213 kg/h

D) 188 kg/h

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 38 000 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass = 72 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass = 65 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass = 61 000 kg Trip Fuel = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and traffic load are respectively:

A) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg

B) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg ✓

C) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

D) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg

Given: Fuel volume: 3800 US Gallons Fuel density: 0.79 kg/l The fuel mass is…

A) 14 383 kg.

B) 13 647 kg.

C) 18 206 kg.

D) 11 364 kg. ✓

The purpose of the decision point procedure is:

A) to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.

B) to increase the amount of extra fuel.

C) to increase the safety of the flight.

D) to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load. ✓

Given: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg Trip fuel: 1 800 kg Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg Contingency (5% of trip fuel): 90 kg Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg Catering: 750 kg Baggage: 3 500 kg What is the Take-off Mass?

A) 52 265 kg

B) 51 425 kg

C) 55 765 kg

D) 51 515 kg ✓

Given: Maximum Allowable Take-Off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 35 500 kg Estimated load: 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel: 4 900 kg Minimum take-off fuel: 7 400 kg Find the maximum additional load.

A) 3 000 kg ✓

B) 4 000 kg

C) 7 000 kg

D) 5 600 kg

During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h 35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

A) 30.3 US gallons/hour ✓

B) 21.3 US gallons/hour

C) 33.0 US gallons/hour

D) 37.9 US gallons/hour

A jet aeroplane has a cruise fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h and a holding fuel consumption of 3690 kg/h. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the quantity of additional fuel must be:

A) 3045 kg.

B) 7380 kg.

C) 8120 kg. ✓

D) 1845 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Ramp Fuel load for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h Holding fuel consumption at 1 500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 74 800 kg.

B) 77 200 kg.

C) 79 800 kg.

D) 77 800 kg. ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 5352 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 6000 kg/h Destination Alternate fuel: 4380 kg Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 13 370 kg.

B) 13 000 kg. ✓

C) 14 500 kg.

D) 13 220 kg.

Given: Dry Operating Mass = 33510 kg Traffic Load = 7600 kg Trip Fuel = 2040 kg Final Reserve Fuel = 983 kg Alternate Fuel = 1100 kg Contingency Fuel = 5% of Trip Fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?

A) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43193 kg.

B) Estimated take-off mass = 45233 kg.

C) Estimated landing mass at destination = 43295 kg. ✓

D) Estimated take-off mass = 43295 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Performance Class A aeroplanes, given the following information? The destination aerodrome has a single runway. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome: 8350 kg Fuel consumption in holding mode: 2800 kg/h Fuel needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield: 4380 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 15 948 kg

B) 14 548 kg ✓

C) 14 130 kg

D) 14 363 kg

A large jet aeroplane is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome, as a Commercial Air Transport operation. The flight time is 3 hours and the normal fuel consumption at cruise is 2648 kg per hour. The pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for the flight includes the items listed below. Given the following fuel load, how much more fuel needs to be loaded to achieve the legal requirement for additional fuel. Taxi Fuel: 180 kg Trip Fuel: 7942 kg Contingency Fuel: 398 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1107 kg

A) 6403 kg

B) 3178 kg

C) 5296 kg

D) 4189 kg ✓

Refer to figure. What amount of fuel should be entered in the TRIP line (Box A)?

A) 1300 kg

B) 2560 kg ✓

C) 4440 kg

D) 3867 kg

Refer to figures or CAP 697 Figure 4.4, and Figure 4.5.3.2. Using the following information as required, what is the minimum Additional Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in the Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane, to an isolated destination aerodrome? Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Total trip distance: 1131 NM Average wind component: +17 kt Average OAT: ISA Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Estimated weight at destination: 48000 kg Destination elevation: 4500 ft

A) 4424 kg

B) 1106 kg

C) 5201 kg

D) 4095 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the Final Reserve Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to a destination (DEST) having one destination alternate (ALTN) required. Estimated Landing Mass at DEST: 60000 kg Alternate Fuel: 3000 kg DEST elevation: 0 ft ALTN elevation: 3500 ft ISA conditions

A) 1370 kg

B) 1310 kg

C) 2580 kg

D) 1290 kg ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. Given the following information, how much Trip Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Ramp mass: 52500 kg Taxi Fuel: 150 kg Take-off and Climb Fuel: 1650 kg Cruise distance: 378 NAM Average wind component in cruise: +20 kt OAT: ISA Descent Fuel: 275 kg Approach and Landing Fuel: 80 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of Trip Fuel Alternate Fuel: 250 kg Holding fuel consumption: 2400 kg per hour

A) 3905 kg ✓

B) 4100 kg

C) 4055 kg

D) 3640 kg

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The fuel price at the destination aerodrome is higher than that at the departure. 2. The fuel price at the departure aerodrome is higher than that at the destination. 3. The fuel price ratio, departure to destination, is greater than 1. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 1 and 4 ✓

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 2

D) 2 and 3

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The estimated landing mass is equal to the maximum landing mass. 2. The weather at the destination is below landing minima. 3. Unable to climb to the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) should an engine fail. 4. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 2 and 3

B) 2 and 4 ✓

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 4

Refer to figure. Given the following information, find the minimum possible Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight from DEP to DEST with a twin-jet aeroplane. (Note: The operator is approved for the use of basic fuel scheme WITH variations) TAS: 450 kt HWC (Head Wind): 50 kt Fuel consumption en-route: 2000 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h Aerodrome A is a suitable alternate.

A) 100 kg

B) 250 kg ✓

C) 150 kg

D) 125 kg

An aircraft is required by ATC to fly at a speed faster than planned for a short period of time, resulting in a higher fuel burn. This unforeseen factor has an influence on the fuel consumption but is accounted for in the..

A) Trip Fuel.

B) Additional Fuel.

C) Contingency Fuel. ✓

D) Final Reserve Fuel.

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3420 kg Alternate Fuel: 968 kg Fuel flow at holding speed: 2376 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 171 kg

B) 198 kg ✓

C) 1782 kg

D) 1188 kg

Use the following information to determine the increase in fuel required for a cruise leg for a Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) flight. Cruise leg distance: 135 NM Planned cruise TAS: 450 kt Forecast wind component: +25 kt Planned cruise fuel consumption: 5 kg/NAM Revised forecast wind component: -25 kt

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 50 kg

C) 250 kg

D) 0 kg

A twin-engined turbojet is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information and assuming a fuel ERA is available for the flight to destination B, find the minimum required Contingency Fuel. Route: from DEP to original destination A via decision point DP with optional refuel destination B. Trip Fuel DEP-A via DP: 5000 kg Trip Fuel DEP-B via DP: 4000 kg Fuel DP-A: 2000 kg

A) 200 kg

B) 150 kg

C) 100 kg ✓

D) 250 kg

A twin-engined turbojet is being operated for a Commercial Air Transport flight. The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure is being applied. Given the following information and assuming a fuel ERA is available for the flight to destination B, find the sum of the minimum required Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel. Route: from DEP to original destination A via decision point DP, with optional refuel destination B. Trip Fuel DEP-A via DP: 6000 kg Trip Fuel DEP-B via DP: 4000 kg Fuel DP-A: 3000 kg A alternate: not planned B alternate: not planned Fuel ERA: not planned Additional Fuel: not required Extra Fuel: not required

A) 6200 kg

B) 6150 kg ✓

C) 4200 kg

D) 6300 kg

Given the following information, find the minimum required Additional Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to an isolated aerodrome. Fuel consumption en-route: 2100 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h No en-route alternate exists.

A) 300 kg

B) 600 kg

C) 2400 kg

D) 4200 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the total fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in a Long-Range Jet Transport (LRJT) aeroplane? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi Fuel: 235 kg Trip Fuel: 52 319 kg Additional Fuel: 2 700 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Destination Alternate Fuel: 1 550 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 850 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 58 570 kg

B) 58 654 kg

C) 61 035 kg

D) 61 270 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 4 000 kg

B) 8 000 kg

C) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case ✓

D) 5 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 4 000 kg

B) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

C) 6 000 kg

D) 10 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310 True airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 5 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure 0.315 $/l at destination To maximize savings, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 8 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

D) 22 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310 True airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 55 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure 0.27 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) 22 000 kg

B) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. ✓

C) 8 000 kg

D) 15 000 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-056, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Knowing that: Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM Cruise level: optimum Air conditioning: standard Anti-icing: OFF Temperature: ISA CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:

A) 170 400 kg

B) 176 100 kg

C) 172 300 kg ✓

D) 171 300 kg

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1c. For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30 000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately…

A) +2.3%

B) -3.6%

C) +7.6% ✓

D) +14.5%

(For this question use annex 033-060 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Take-off mass: 210 500 kg Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM Flight level: FL 330 Flight regime: "Long Range" Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt Total anti-ice: "ON" Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg Final reserve: 2 400 kg Ignore alternate and contingency fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is:

A) 30 200 kg

B) 31 840 kg ✓

C) 39 750 kg

D) 31 340 kg

(For this question use annex 033-057, 033-056, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM Cruise level: optimum Air conditioning: standard Anti-icing: OFF Temperature: ISA CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, The planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

A) 192 minutes

B) 198 minutes

C) 209 minutes ✓

D) 203 minutes

(For this question use annex 033-043 and 033-055 rev. 05.11.2004). The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Distance of Flight: 3 500 NM Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 55 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg Fuel price at destination: 0.27 $/l The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be:

A) 0.28 $/l

B) 0.30 $/l

C) 0.29 $/l

D) 0.24 $/l ✓

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL 350 Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:

A) 20 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) 12 000 kg

D) 10 000 kg ✓

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL 350 Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg) Maximum Landing Mass: 180 000 kg Maximum Take-off Mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:

A) 2 000 kg

B) 4 000 kg

C) 0 kg ✓

D) 3 000 kg

Refer to figures. A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1 300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimise its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is:

A) 42 000 kg

B) 12 000 kg

C) 14 000 kg ✓

D) 30 000 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-048, 033-049 and 033-050 rev. 05.11.2004). Given: Take-off mass: 150 000 kg Planned cruise at FL 350 Long range MACH Standard Atmosphere (ISA) CG: 37% You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM. Your flight time will be:

A) 304 minutes ✓

B) 359 minutes

C) 288 minutes

D) 298 minutes

(For this question use annex 033-045 rev. 05.11.2004). A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG = 37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass at start of descent is:

A) 193 000 kg

B) 193 800 kg

C) 193 400 kg

D) 192 500 kg ✓

(For this question use annexes 033-036, 033-037, 033-038 and 033-039 rev. 05.11.2004). Planning a MACH 0.82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg. The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions. Anti-icing: off. Fuel consumption will be:

A) 30 371 kg

B) 32 657 kg ✓

C) 27 577 kg

D) 30 117 kg

(For this question use annex 033-018 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6). In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin-jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with:

A) Landing mass at alternate, distance (NM), wind component. ✓

B) Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.

C) Distance (NM), wind component, Zero Fuel Mass.

D) Zero Fuel Mass, still air distance, wind component.

Refer to figure. Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5 % of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h.

A) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37

B) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07 ✓

C) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12

D) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52

(For this question use annex 033-028 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2). Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following data. Given: MACH 0.74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions

A) 1497 kg/h

B) 2300 kg/h ✓

C) 1150 kg/h

D) 2994 kg/h

(For this question use annex 033-033 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4). Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T: ISA Pressure altitude: 4000 ft Power: Full throttle / 25.0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM

A) 911 NM

B) 865 NM ✓

C) 739 NM

D) 851 NM

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what is the ATC endurance for a Commercial Air Transport IFR flight with a turbine-engine aeroplane? Extra fuel flow: 2500 kg/h

A) 179 min

B) 174 min

C) 165 min

D) 184 min ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given the following information, for a Commercial Air Transport operation, what is the Trip Fuel? Pressure altitude: 32000 ft Cruise procedure: Long range Ground distance: 300 NM HWC: 25 kt OAT: ISA Mass at start: 40000 kg

A) 1400 kg

B) 1419 kg

C) 1391 kg

D) 1481 kg ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 2.2, Table 2.2.1. Given the following information, what is the Trip Fuel for the planned Commercial Air Transport flight under VFR? Power setting: Full throttle / 2500 RPM GS: 130 kt Trip distance from TOC: 190 NM Cruising altitude: 8000 ft OAT: ISA Additional fuel for climb: 3.2 gal Additional fuel for approach: 10 minutes at cruise fuel flow

A) 22.6 gal

B) 25.6 gal

C) 24.8 gal ✓

D) 21.6 gal

Given: Maximum Allowable Take-off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass : 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass : 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass : 35 500 kg Estimated load : 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel : 4 900 kg Minimum take-off fuel : 7 400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

A) 11 100 kg. ✓

B) 14 400 kg.

C) 11 400 kg.

D) 8 600 kg.

The purpose of the 'Reduced Contingency Fuel (Decision point) Procedure' is to reduce the :

A) Minimum required fuel and therefore to increase the load. ✓

B) Minimum required fuel and therefore to increase the amount of additional fuel

C) Contingency fuel and therefore to increase the final reserve fuel.

D) Contingency fuel and therefore to increase the amount of possible extra fuel

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.1. Given the following information, for a Commercial Air Transport operation, how much Trip Fuel is needed for this segment? Gross mass : 40000 kg Pressure altitude: 32000 ft Cruise procedure: Longe range Segment distance : 350 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) HWC : 25 kt OAT : -59° C

A) 1613 kg ✓

B) 1667 kg

C) 1623 kg

D) 1633 kg

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 3.4. Given the following conditions and in order to complete a navigation plan, calculate the True Air Speed TAS during cruise, for a VFR flight with a multi engined piston aeroplane at FL075. OAT: +10° C Power: Economy

A) 171 kt ✓

B) 156 kt

C) 140 kt

D) 189 kt

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 35000 ft. What will be the change in air range available from 1000 kg of fuel for the following situation if the OAT increases from -55° C to -45° C? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 50 000 kg Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Forecast OAT at FL350: -55° C Wind component at FL350: -25 kt

A) An increase of 4 NAM.

B) A reduction of 11 NAM.

C) A reduction of 1 NAM. ✓

D) An increase of 10 NAM.

(For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004). Assuming the following data: Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM Cruise flight level: FL 310 Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 True airspeed: 470 kt Head wind component: 40 kt Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15° C CG: 37%. Total anti ice: ON Pack flow: HI Fuel consumption for such a flight is

A) 23 500 kg ✓

B) 21 700 kg

C) 21 500 kg

D) 19 900 kg

(For this question use annex 033-073 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5). For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component: 20 kt Temperature: ISA + 15°C Brake release mass: 64700 kg The a trip fuel, and b trip time respectively are

A) a 16200 kg b 6 h 20 min

B) a 18400 kg b 7 h 00 min

C) a 17000 kg b 6 h 45 min ✓

D) a 15800 kg b 6 h 15 min

Refer to figure. Given the following information about a Commercial Air Transport IFR flight, what is the required Taxi Fuel? Company policy: minimum taxi fuel 60 kg Expected taxi time: 10 min APU: ON for 5 min

A) 65 kg ✓

B) 55 kg

C) 50 kg

D) 60 kg

When planning a Commercial Air Transport flight to an isolated aerodrome destination, the last possible point of diversion to any available En Route Alternate ERA aerodrome should be used as the

A) Equal Time Point ETP.

B) En Route Alternate ERA diversion point.

C) Predetermined Point PDP. ✓

D) Reduced Contingency Fuel RCF point.

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-066 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1). Given: Distance C - D: 680 NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA: 0° C Headwind component: 60 kt Gross mass at C: 44 700 kg The fuel required from C - D is

A) 4000 kg

B) 3100 kg

C) 3400 kg

D) 3700 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage at the parking position: 25 minutes Prior to taxi Planned taxi time: 20 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes

A) 488 kg

B) 536 kg

C) 220 kg

D) 268 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Estimated taxi time: 10 minutes at the departure aerodrome and 5 minutes at the destination aerodrome APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min Planned APU usage at the parking position: Zero Total trip distance: 748 NM Average fuel flow: 2618 kg/h TAS: 421 kt Head wind component: 24 kt Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel Alternate Fuel: 550 kg Holding fuel flow: 2250 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 5840 kg

B) 7020 kg

C) 6855 kg

D) 6965 kg ✓

The Commercial Air Transport flight shall be conducted so that the expected usable remaining fuel on arrival at the destination aerodrome is NOT less than the sum of the…

A) Contingency Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel.

B) Alternate Fuel and the Contingency Fuel.

C) Alternate Fuel, Contingency Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel.

D) Alternate Fuel and the Final Reserve Fuel. ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 2000 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM: 2000 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 2900 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 2600 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 950 kg Trip Fuel TF: 350 kg Minimum Block Fuel BF: 500 kg

A) 600 kg.

B) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

C) 400 kg. ✓

D) 450 kg.

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Jet aircraft, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3 780 kg Fuel to alternate: 987 kg Taxi Fuel: 120 kg Fuel flow at 1 500 feet above destination alternate aerodrome: 2 232 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6192 kg ✓

B) 6003 kg

C) 7119 kg

D) 4887 kg

Refer to figure or CAP697 file 4.3.1B. Given the following information: Twin jet aeroplane Zero Fuel Mass: 50000 kg Landing mass at alternate: 52000 kg Final reserve fuel: 2000 kg Alternate fuel: 1000 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary fuel: 0 kg Flight to destination: Distance: 720 NM True course: 030° W/V: 340°/30 kt Long range cruise FL 330 Outside air temperature: -30° C Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning

A) 4800 kg, 01 h 54 min ✓

B) 5100 kg, 01 h 58 min

C) 4600 kg, 02 h 06 min

D) 4400 kg, 02 h 03 min

Refer to figure. Assuming no significant change in fuel consumption, what would be the planned remaining fuel at waypoint 40N 050W?

A) 25.3 tonnes

B) 29.7 tonnes ✓

C) 29.9 tonnes

D) 25.1 tonnes

(For this question use annex 033-011 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1). Given: Flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280: 48 min Cruise procedure is long range cruise LRC Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kg Find the distance in nautical air miles NAM for this leg and the fuel consumption:

A) 355 NAM; 2 100 kg

B) 345 NAM; 2 000 kg. ✓

C) 350 NAM; 2 000 kg

D) 437 NAM; 2 100 kg

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 80 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 50000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 822 kg ✓

B) 900 kg

C) 744 kg

D) 780 kg

A Commercial Air Transport operator has a fleet of turbine engine aeroplanes. For this operator, an isolated aerodrome is one for which the alternate and final fuel reserve required to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than the fuel to fly for

A) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, excluding Final Reserve Fuel.

B) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is more.

C) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including Final Reserve Fuel. ✓

D) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is less.

You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions : Dry Operating Mass : 2800 kg Trip Fuel : 300 kg Traffic Load : 400 kg Maximum Take-off Mass : 4200 kg Maximum Landing Mass : 3700 kg

A) 500 kg

B) 700 kg

C) 1000 kg

D) 800 kg ✓

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-067 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3). Given: Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Distance B to C : 800 NM Temperature : -55°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg The fuel required from B to C is

A) 4975 kg

B) 6125 kg

C) 4945 kg

D) 6000 kg ✓

Refer to figure. For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind: 25 kt Temperature: ISA -10°C Brake release mass: 66000 kg The a trip fuel and b trip time respectively are:

A) a 15800 kg b 6 h 20 min

B) a 15000 kg b 6 h 00 min

C) a 14000 kg b 5 h 35 min ✓

D) a 14600 kg b 5 h 45 min

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 875 000 lb MLM: 652 000 lb MZFM: 555 100 lb DOM: 394 100 lb Traffic Load: 155 215 lb Trip Fuel: 198 620 lb Planned T/O Fuel: 226 195 lb Taxi Fuel: 1600 lb Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 470 lb per 1000 lb of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 377 750 lb

A) 75110 lb

B) 110 411 lb

C) 5785 lb

D) 99490 lb ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. What will be the approximate change in air distance available from 1000 kg of fuel for the following situation if the tailwind component increases from 45 kt to 65 kt? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 50000 kg Cruise level: FL370 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Forecast OAT at FL370: ISA

A) 0 NAM. ✓

B) An increase of 20 NAM.

C) An increase of 9 NAM.

D) A decrease of 20 NAM.

Given the following information, calculate the change in planned Trip Fuel when applying the updated meteorological conditions. Round up the calculation to the next full kilogram. Trip distance: 150 NAM Planned TAS: 150 kt Change TAS: 1 kt for every 1° C change in OAT Planned average trip fuel consumption: 3 kg/NAM Change of Trip Fuel required: 0.5% increase for every 10° C increase in OAT Revised OAT: 10° C above planned OAT The change in Trip Fuel will be…

A) a decrease of 27 kg.

B) an increase of 23 kg.

C) an increase of 3 kg. ✓

D) a decrease of 29 kg.

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 233 000 kg MLM: 182 000 kg MZFM: 170 000 kg DOM: 122 550 kg Traffic Load: 43217 kg Trip Fuel: 45854 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 51616 kg Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 394 kg per 1000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 110 000 kg

A) 14597 kg ✓

B) 4233 kg

C) 10471 kg

D) 15617 kg

(For the question use annex 033-072 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C). For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind component 45kt Temperature ISA - 10°C Cruise altitude 29000ft Landing mass 55000kg The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are:

A) (a) 18000kg (b) 5hr 50 min

B) (a) 16000 kg (b) 6h 25 min

C) (a) 20000 kg (b) 6h 40 min

D) (a) 17100 kg (b) 6h 07 min ✓

The maximum fuel capacity of an aircraft is 1400 lb, and the pilot has to pre position fuel to fill up en route to the final destination. The pilot estimates landing at the fuelling point with 350 lb on board. How many 45 Imperial gallon fuel drums must be ordered if the fuel supplier states a specific gravity of 0.79?

A) 5

B) 3 ✓

C) 4

D) 2

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 85 000 kg MLM: 75 500 kg MZFM: 71 420 kg DOM: 48 000 kg Traffic Load: 15 464 kg Trip Fuel: 2 561 kg Planne T/O Fuel: 5 167 kg Taxi Fuel: 200 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 54 kg per 1 000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 23 500 kg

A) 9 940 kg ✓

B) 16 369 kg

C) 9 430 kg

D) 7 956 kg

(For this question use annex 033-011 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1). Given: Flight leg: Top of Climb TOC to enroute point B Flight time from TOC to B: 48 minutes Flight regime: Long Range Cruise, FL280 Temperature: ISA -5° C Take off Mass: 65 000 kg Climb Fuel: 1 100 kg Calulate: Fuel consumption from take-off to enroute point B

A) 2270 kg

B) 3870 kg

C) 3370 kg ✓

D) 2000 kg

Given the following information, what is the additional fuel required? The Pre-determined Point PDP procedure has to be applied to a Commercial Air Transport flight under IFR for an aeroplane with turbine engines, from the departure aerodrome A to the destination aerodrome B, with one alternate aerodrome C. Distance from A to B: 1600 NM Distance from A to C: 1350 NM TAS: 410 kt Fuel flow: 2750 kg/h Headwind Component: 15 kt

A) 2063 kg

B) 5500 kg ✓

C) 1671 kg

D) 1375 kg

(For this question use annex 033-072 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C). For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Temperature: ISA -10°C Cruise altitude: 29 000 ft Landing mass: 45 000 kg Trip fuel available: 16 000 kg What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted?

A) 70 kt

B) 0 kt

C) 15 kt

D) 35 kt ✓

Consider an IFR flight with a departure aerodrome called "DEP" and a destination aerodrome called "DEST" and a decision point called "DP", since the reduced contingency fuel procedure has to be used under the basic fuel scheme WITH variations. There is also a suitable aerodrome for refuelling, called aerodrome "REF". The pilot has calculated a trip fuel from DEP to DEST so the contingency will be at least…

A) 5% from DEP to REF.

B) 5% from DP to REF.

C) 5% from DEP to DEST.

D) 5% from DP to DEST. ✓

In Commercial Air Transport operations, the purpose of Contingency Fuel is to…

A) provide Additional Fuel when planning to an isolated airfield.

B) compensate for factors that influence the fuel required in an unpredictable way. ✓

C) provide safety in addition to the required Reserve Fuel.

D) include a second alternate aerodrome in the flight planning.

Ignoring reserves, how much fuel is needed over a distance of 360 NM if an aircraft’s fuel consumption is 300 l/h? The TAS is 210 kt and the headwind component is 30 kt.

A) 515 l

B) 900 l

C) 600 l ✓

D) 450 l

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-068 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4). Given: Distance B to C: 350 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature: -40°C Tailwind component: 70 kt Gross mass at B: 53200 kg The fuel required from B to C is

A) 2670 kg

B) 2800 kg

C) 1940 kg ✓

D) 1810 kg

Given the following information, what is the maximum range under still air conditions with an SEP aeroplane in a Commercial Air Transport operation, excluding any reserves? Fuel flow: 35 kg/h Maximum amount of fuel: 131 kg Alternate Fuel: 12 kg Taxi Fuel: 3 kg Contingency Fuel: 5% of the Trip Fuel GS: 130 kt

A) 317 NM ✓

B) 328 NM

C) 410 NM

D) 333 NM

Refer to figure or CAP697 file 4.3.1C. For a flight of 1900 nautical ground miles the following apply: Head wind component: 10 kt Temperature: ISA -5°C Trip fuel available: 15000 kg Landing mass: 50000 kg What is the minimum cruise level pressure altitude which may be planned?

A) 14000 ft

B) 10000 ft

C) 17000 ft ✓

D) 22000 ft

For an IFR flight from the departure aerodrome A to the destination aerodrome B, the decision point procedure has to be applied, considering a Decision Point DP and an optional refuel destination C. If the Trip Fuel is calculated from A to B, the Contingency Fuel must be at least 5% of the estimated fuel consumption from

A) DP to B. ✓

B) A to C.

C) A to B.

D) DP to C.

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. Maximum Ramp Mass: 63060 kg MTOM: 62800 kg MLM: 54900 kg MZFM: 51300 kg DOM: 33200 kg Traffic Load: 12375 kg T/O Fuel: 3575 kg Trip Fuel: 2100 kg Taxi Fuel: 195 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 40 kg per 1000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 16145 kg

A) 7850 kg

B) 5725 kg

C) 13650 kg

D) 8164 kg ✓

Which of the statements correctly completes the description of Trip Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Trip Fuel is the amount of fuel required from

A) take-off to landing at the destination, and includes contingency fuel.

B) the parking position to landing at the destination.

C) take-off to landing at the destination. ✓

D) take-off to landing at the alternate.

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Given: Brake release mass: 62 000 kg Temperature: ISA -15°C The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is

A) 1550 kg ✓

B) 1750 kg

C) 1650 kg

D) 1800 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, with no destination alternate, given the following information? Estimated taxi time: 20 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min Planned APU usage at the parking position: Zero Total trip distance: 1 131 NM Average fuel flow: 2 638 kg/h TAS: 424 kt Average wind component: +17 kt Contingency Fuel: 3% of the Trip Fuel Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 8389 kg

B) 8989 kg ✓

C) 9209 kg

D) 8769 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Usable Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Estimated taxi time: 13 minutes APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min Sum of Trip Fuel and Contingency Fuel: 5 420 kg Destination Alternate Fuel: 1 400 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 250 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg Estimated length of time of APU use: 38 minutes

A) 8143 kg

B) 8213 kg

C) 8286 kg ✓

D) 8070 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 875 000 lb MLM: 652 000 lb MZFM: 555 100 lb DOM: 394 100 lb Traffic Load: 109 350 lb Trip Fuel: 289 750 lb Planned T/O Fuel: 315 315 lb Taxi Fuel: 1600 lb Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 470 lb per 1000 lb of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 377 750 lb

A) 51650 lb

B) 57835 lb

C) 56235 lb ✓

D) 180 788 lb

(For this question use annex 033-025 rev.05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3). Given: FL70 OAT -19° C Lean mixture 2300 RPM Find: Fuel flow in gallons per hour GPH and TAS.

A) 73.90 GPH TAS: 159 kt

B) 12.35 GPH TAS: 151 kt

C) 12.35 GPH TAS: 159 kt ✓

D) 11.95 GPH TAS: 160 kt

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 58 000 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass: 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 13 500 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 16 000 kg

A) 2500 kg.

B) 2240 kg.

C) 240 kg.

D) Not able to uplift Extra Fuel. ✓

Refer to figure. The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data. Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM Flight level FL 310 True airspeed: 450 kt Headwind component at this level: 50 kt Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000 kg Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure 0.30 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:

A) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.

B) 32 000 kg

C) 18 000 kg

D) 8 000 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-102 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1). Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow lb/hr with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 3°C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: Full throttle / 21.0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM

A) 136 kt and 56.9 lb/hr

B) 125 kt and 55.7 lb/hr

C) 131 kt and 56.9 lb/hr

D) 134 kt and 55.7 lb/hr ✓

When planning a Commercial Air Transport flight, the Trip Fuel must include fuel for which of the following? 1. Taxi, take-off and climb 2. Cruise and step climb/descent 3. Descent, approach and landing 4. Contingencies and missed approach 5. Holding for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation

A) 1, 4.

B) 2, 3, 5.

C) 2, 3. ✓

D) 1, 2, 3.

(For this question use annex 033-019 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C). Given: Twin jet aeroplane Ground distance to destination aerodrome: 1600 NM Headwind component: 50 kt FL 330 Cruise 0.78 Mach ISA Deviation: +20° C Landing mass: 55000 kg Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planning

A) 12400 kg, 04 h 00 min ✓

B) 11400 kg, 04 h 12 min

C) 12000 kg, 03 h 51 min

D) 11600 kg, 04 h 15 min

Refer to figure. Given the following information, how much Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage at the parking position: 15 minutes prior to taxi Planned taxi time: 20 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes

A) 469 kg

B) 220 kg

C) 440 kg

D) 249 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004). Assuming the following data: Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM Cruise flight level: FL 370 Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 True airspeed: 470 kt Wind: zero wind during flight Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15° C . CG: 37% Total anti-ice: ON Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

A) 31 500 kg ✓

B) 29 100 kg

C) 29 400 kg

D) 27 400 kg

(For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004). Assuming the following data: Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM Cruise flight level: FL 350 Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) Tailwind component: 40 kt Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg Temperature: ISA CG: 37 % Total anti-ice: OFF Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

A) 27 800 kg ✓

B) 29 200 kg

C) 28 300 kg

D) 27 000 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 233 000 kg MLM: 182 000 kg MZFM: 170 000 kg DOM: 122 550 kg Traffic Load: 35367 kg Trip Fuel: 62332 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 67885 kg Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 394 kg per 1000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 110 000 kg

A) 12751 kg

B) 6898 kg

C) 7198 kg ✓

D) 18530 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with Jet aeroplanes, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 72 340 kg Fuel to alternate: 4 589 kg Fuel flow at 1 500 feet above destination aerodrome: 5 592 kg per hour Taxi Fuel: 345 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 80 070 kg

B) 83 687 kg ✓

C) 83 342 kg

D) 86 483 kg

(For this question use annex 033-025 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3). Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13°C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300

A) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr

B) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

C) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr ✓

D) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr

Refer to figure. Given the following information, determine the Trip Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a turbine engined aeroplane. Consider that the flight is planned without a destination alternate, and that the landing at destination is planned with the minimum regulatory fuel on touchdown. Trip Distance: 350 NM Total Fuel Flow for Holding Planning: 4000 kg/h Zero Fuel Mass ZFM: 53000 kg Average Wind Component: 25 kt Headwind No Additional Fuel is required. No Extra Fuel is required. The flight is to be planned according to the basic fuel policy procedure

A) 2200 kg

B) 3000 kg

C) 2400 kg ✓

D) 2300 kg

A pilot is preparing a commercial flight but during the planning phase the latest weather update at the destination aerodrome leads to a change of the runway which in turn results to a more time consuming arrival section. What will happen to the planned trip fuel?

A) It will not change because it is not part of the arrival procedure.

B) It will not change because the arrival fuel consists of a fixed quantity.

C) The pilot could update the trip fuel, but he/she does not have to update the contingency fuel because it covers such changes during the planning phase.

D) It has to be updated correspondingly. ✓

During the pre flight preparation, the pilot calculates an amount of 27.5 US gallons for refuelling, which equals to...

A) 104 litres. ✓

B) 125 litres.

C) 6 litres.

D) 7 litres.

Refer to figure. Given the following information about a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the required Taxi Fuel? Expected taxi time: 10 min APU: ON for 10 min Company policy: for flight planning purposes, Taxi Fuel shall be calculated as at least 60 kg.

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 60 kg

C) 70 kg

D) 55 kg

The trip fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight should include…

A) 5% contingency fuel.

B) missed approach fuel.

C) taxi fuel.

D) any step climb fuel. ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information about a Commercial Air Transport IFR flight, what is the required Taxi Fuel? Expected taxi time: 6 min APU: ON for 7 min Company policy: for flight planning purposes, Taxi Fuel shall be calculated as at least 60 kg

A) 44 kg

B) 60 kg ✓

C) 109 kg

D) 49 kg

(For this question use annex 033-013 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1). The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT -54.3° C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind. Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required?

A) 2350 kg

B) 2250 kg

C) 2150 kg ✓

D) 2050 kg

(For this question use annex 033-025 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3). A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lb fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 6 lb of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time overhead to overhead is 02 hours and 37 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 23 in.HG or full throttle, 2300 RPM, 20° C lean. Flight level is 50 and Standard Day ISA. The minimum block fuel is:

A) 276 lb ✓

B) 256 lb

C) 260 lb

D) 281 lb

(For this question use annex 033-023 rev.05.11.2004 r Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3). A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane MEP 1. For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2 h 37 min. Power setting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel.

A) 91 US gallons. ✓

B) 86 US gallons.

C) 76 US gallons.

D) 118 US gallons.

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/0.74 to FL350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg ISA -10° C Airport elevation 3000 ft

A) 24 min, 1950 kg, 139 Nautical Air Miles NAM, 383 kt

B) 24 min, 1850 kg, 148 Nautical Miles NM, 391 kt

C) 24 min, 1775 kg, 139 Nautical Air Miles NAM, 383 kt ✓

D) 24 min, 1850 kg, 139 Nautical Air Miles NAM, 383 kt

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned taxi time: 15 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes

A) 330 kg

B) 194 kg

C) 359 kg

D) 165 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, with no destination alternate, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Estimated taxi time: 15 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min Planned APU usage at the parking position: 15 minutes Total trip distance: 315 NM Average fuel flow: 2878 kg/h TAS: 440 kt Average headwind component: 16 kt Contingency Fuel: 5 minutes Holding Fuel Holding fuel flow: 2200 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 3973 kg

B) 4167 kg ✓

C) 3617 kg

D) 4332 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 2000 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM: 1800 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 3000 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 2200 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 550 kg Trip Fuel TF: 190 kg Minimum Block Fuel BF: 350 kg Taxi Fuel: 15 kg

A) 215 kg.

B) 200 kg. ✓

C) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

D) 255 kg.

Refer to figure. Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted, if the Commander wants to climb directly to the optimum altitude of 37000 ft. Cruise speed: 0.79 M Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 62731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM: 59031 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 76000 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 66360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 4761 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 8000 kg

A) 8000 kg

B) 1209 kg ✓

C) 9209 kg

D) 4330 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the total fuel required for a VFR Commercial Air Transport flight with a multi-engined piston aircraft with a maximum take-off mass of 5700 kg or less? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Start-up and Taxi Fuel: 2 gal Climb Fuel: 6 gal Cruise Fuel: 21 gal Destination Alternate Fuel: 3 gal Fuel flow for Final Reserve Fuel: 16 gal/h Extra Fuel: 0 gal Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A) 44 gal

B) 39 gal

C) 46 gal ✓

D) 41 gal

The Trip Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight includes fuel from…

A) the end of the departure route to the beginning of the arrival route, including the climb and descent.

B) take-off to landing including the expected departure, arrival, approach, climb and descent. ✓

C) the block position to landing including the expected departure, arrival, approach, climb and descent.

D) top of climb to top of descent, excluding step climbs and descents during the cruise.

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.4, and CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. Using the following information as required, what is the minimum Additional Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight in the Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, to an isolated destination aerodrome? Cruise level: FL370 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Total trip distance: 2143 NM Average headwind component: 8 kt Average OAT: ISA + 10° C Contingency Fuel: 5% Trip Fuel Estimated weight at destination: 45000 kg Destination elevation: MSL

A) 5019 kg

B) 3929 kg ✓

C) 4360 kg

D) 3818 kg

A pilot has planned a flight but the destination reports a weather phenomenon which induced the pilot to update his/her fuel log. Which of the following phenomena does this refer to (most likely)?

A) Shallow fog.

B) Recent rain showers.

C) Recent snow showers. ✓

D) Haze or mist.

(For this question use annex 033-072 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C). Given: Route Distance: 2400 NM Wind Component: 25 kt tailwind Temperature: ISA -10° C Cruise Altitude: 31000 ft Landing Mass: 52000 kg The approximate a trip fuel and b trip time are respectively:

A) a 14200 kg b 5 h 30 min ✓

B) a 12000 kg b 5 h 15 min

C) a 16200 kg b 5 h 45 min

D) a 13600 kg b 6 h 30 min

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 55031 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass: 76000 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 7931 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 11249 kg

A) 4991 kg.

B) 4511 kg.

C) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

D) 4751 kg. ✓

Refer to figure. Given: True Air Speed (TAS): 350 kt Head Wind (HWC): 50 kt Fuel consumption en-route: 1 800 kg/h Fuel consumption holding: 900 kg/h Suitable alternate at location: X Calculate the contingency fuel for a commercial flight with a twin engined jet aeroplane from departure to destination: (Note: The operator is approved for the use of basic fuel scheme WITH variations)

A) 150 kg

B) 108 kg

C) 360 kg ✓

D) 216 kg

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.3.2c and CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 37000 ft. Which changes to forecast conditions will produce the greatest increase in Trip Fuel required for the following Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT flight? Cruise level: FL370 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Trip distance: 2000 NM A change in

A) headwind component from 0 kt to 30 kt plus a change in OAT from ISA to ISA -10° C.

B) headwind component from 0 kt to 50 kt. ✓

C) headwind component from 0 kt to 30 kt plus a change in OAT from ISA to ISA + 5°C.

D) OAT from ISA to ISA + 20° C.

(For this question use annex 033-021 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2). A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane MEP 1. The cruising level will be 11000 ft. The outside air temperature at FL is -15° C. The usable fuel is 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel.

A) 610 NM

B) 602 NM

C) 752 NM ✓

D) 852 NM

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. Maximum Ramp Mass: 77500 kg MTOM: 77000 kg MLM: 66360 kg MZFM: 62720 kg DOM: 42845 kg Traffic Load: 17460 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 10365 kg Trip Fuel: 7890 kg Taxi Fuel: 195 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 135 kg per 1000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 21000 kg

A) 3580 kg

B) 2415 kg

C) 4064 kg ✓

D) 6330 kg

If the Pre determined Point PDP procedure has to be applied for a Commercial Air Transport flight, the remaining fuel at the PDP must be sufficient for continuation to

A) either the destination or the departure.

B) either the destination or the alternate. ✓

C) the destination and afterwards to the departure.

D) the destination and afterwards to the alternate.

"Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is

A) to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane.

B) to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass. ✓

C) to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations.

D) to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 4.5.3.2 for Pressure Altitude 35000 ft. What will be the approximate change in ground distance available from 1000 kg of fuel for the following situation if the headwind increases from 25 kt to 35 kt? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 65 000 kg Cruise level: FL350 Cruise speed: Mach 0.74 Forecast OAT at FL350: -65°C Headwind at FL350: 25 kt

A) An increase of 3 NM.

B) A reduction of 10 NM.

C) A reduction of 3 NM. ✓

D) An increase of 10 NM.

(For this question use annex 033-008 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1). A multi engine piston aeroplane is departing an aerodrome with an altitude of 3000 ft and temperature of -1ºC. Calculate the fuel to climb to FL110, where the temperature is ISA -10° C, with mixture rich.

A) 6 US gallon ✓

B) 9 US gallon

C) 3 US gallon

D) 12 US gallon

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted. MTOM: 233 000 kg MLM: 182 000 kg MZFM: 170 000 kg DOM: 122 550 kg Traffic Load: 41936 kg Trip Fuel: 52139 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 57143 kg Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Fuel penalty for carrying Extra Fuel: 394 kg per 1000 kg of Extra Fuel Fuel tank capacity: 110 000 kg

A) 11071 kg

B) 12510 kg

C) 11371 kg ✓

D) 5514 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the total fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a multi-engined piston aircraft under IFR? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 83 litres Destination Alternate Fuel: 18 litres Taxi Fuel: 5 litres Fuel flow: 35 litres per hour Extra Fuel: 0 litres Discretionary Fuel: 0 litres

A) 136 litres ✓

B) 132 litres

C) 141 litres

D) 128 litres

Refer to figure. Given the following information, calculate Taxi fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage at the parking position: 25 minutes prior to taxi Planned taxi time: 10 minutes at the departure aerodrome and 5 minutes at the destination aerodrome

A) 110 kg

B) 158 kg ✓

C) 165 kg

D) 213 kg

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10° C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL280 Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74

A) 1387 kg

B) 1040 kg

C) 1238 kg

D) 1138 kg ✓

(For this question use annex 033-010 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1). Given: Long range cruise Temperature: -63° C at FL330 Initial gross mass enroute: 54 100 kg Leg flight time: 29 min Find the fuel consumption for this leg.

A) 1 200 kg

B) 1 100 kg ✓

C) 1 680 kg

D) 1 000 kg

Trip Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight includes fuel for…

A) take-off, climb, cruise including any step climb, descent, approach, and landing. ✓

B) take-off, climb, cruise including any step climb, contingency, descent, approach, and landing.

C) taxi, take-off, climb, cruise including any step climb, descent, approach, and landing.

D) take-off, climb, cruise including any step climb, additional discretionary requirements, descent, approach, and landing.

When using decision point procedure, you reduce the

A) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination. ✓

B) holding fuel by 30%.

C) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.

D) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.

Refer to CAP 697 figure 4.3.6. Given the following information, find the minimum required Alternate Fuel for an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight of duration 8 hours to a destination for which the operator has nominated two destination alternates ALTN1 and ALTN2. At the destination, meteorological information is available, weather conditions are expected to be above the planning minima within ETA +/- 1 hour, two runways are available and usable, the ceiling will be 1500 ft, and the ground visibility 4 km. Distance to ALTN1: 200 NM Wind to ALTN1: 50 kt HWC Distance to ALTN2: 275 NM Wind to ALTN2: 25 kt TWC Landing Mass at alternates: 55.0 t

A) 1750 kg

B) 2350 kg

C) 1900 kg ✓

D) 2100 kg

Mark the correct statement: If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning

A) a destination alternate is not required.

B) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.

C) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point. ✓

D) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.

Refer to figure. Calculate the taxi fuel for a commercial flight if the APU is used at the parking position for 35 minutes and the planned taxi time is 15 minutes at both, the departure and the destination:

A) 165 kg

B) 330 kg

C) 397 kg

D) 232 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Assuming an average fuel flow of 2790 kg/h, complete the following fuel log and determine the block fuel required by a jet aircraft to perform the Commercial Air Transport flight.

A) 5718 kg

B) 5020 kg ✓

C) 4910 kg

D) 5608 kg

Refer to figure or CAP697 file 2.1. Given the following information: FL75 OAT: +5° C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lb. Find: Still air distance NAM and ground distance NM using the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb”

A) 16 NAM. 18 NM.

B) 14 NAM. 18 NM.

C) 18 NAM. 13 NM.

D) 18 NAM. 15 NM. ✓

Refer to figure or CAP 697 Figure 2.2, Table 2.2.1. Given the following information, what is the fuel flow? Power setting: Full throttle / 2500 RPM Altitude: 11 000 ft OAT: -7°C

A) 73.30 lb/h

B) 11.75 lb/h

C) 11.30 lb/h

D) 70.55 lb/h ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following information, what is the Total Taxi Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage at the parking position: 30 minutes prior to taxi Planned taxi time: 10 minutes at the departure aerodrome and 15 minutes at the destination aerodrome

A) 188 kg

B) 168 kg ✓

C) 333 kg

D) 110 kg

Refer to figure. Given: Power setting: Full Throttle @ 2 500RPM Trip distance: (from TOC) 230 NM Cruising altitude: 12 000 ft Temperature (OAT): ISA Climb additional: 3.6 gal Approach additional: 15 minutes (cruise fuel) Ground speed: 140 kts Calculate the trip fuel for a commercial VFR flight by using the above data:

A) 21.4 gal

B) 25.1 gal ✓

C) 132.4 gal

D) 25.8 gal

(For this question use annexes 033-065 and 033-066 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1). Given: Distance C - D: 3200 NM Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +12°C Tailwind component: 50 kt Gross mass at C: 55 000 kg The fuel required from C - D is:

A) 14 500 kg ✓

B) 17 500 kg

C) 14 200 kg

D) 17 800 kg

Given the following information about a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 59 031 kg Regulated Take-off Mass: 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 4761 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 8000 kg

A) 9209 kg

B) 8000 kg

C) 4330 kg ✓

D) 9640 kg

Given the following information, what is the contingency fuel required for a twin-engined jet? For an IFR flight from the departure aerodrome A to the destination aerodrome B, the decision point procedure has to be applied, considering a Decision Point DP and an optional refuel destination C. Distance from A to B: 1500 NM Distance from A to C: 800 NM Distance from A to DP: 710 NM TAS: 390 kt Fuel flow: 2500 kg/h Headwind Component: 35 kt

A) 278 kg ✓

B) 282 kg

C) 528 kg

D) 250 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel required for the IFR Commercial Air Transport flight from A to B with alternate C with a turbine engine aircraft, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Trip Fuel: 4520 kg Alternate Fuel: 236 kg Fuel flow for Final Reserve Fuel: 2510 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6261 kg

B) 6487 kg ✓

C) 6237 kg

D) 7115 kg

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1. Given: FL75 OAT: +5° C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lb. Find: Time and fuel to climb.

A) 7 min. 2.6 USG

B) 9 min. 2.7 USG

C) 9 min. 3.3 USG ✓

D) 10 min. 3.6 USG

Refer to figure or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5. The following apply: Temperature: ISA +15°C Brake release mass: 62000 kg Trip time: 5 h 20 min What is the trip fuel?

A) 13200 kg

B) 13800 kg

C) 13000 kg

D) 13500 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Given the following data, determine the required Alternate Fuel. Distance: 130 NM Wind: 20 kt Headwind Landing weight: 55 tons

A) 1180 kg

B) 1300 kg

C) 1126 kg

D) 1240 kg ✓

Contingency Fuel is carried to account for…

A) known factors that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome.

B) unforeseen factors that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome. ✓

C) unforeseen factors that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the alternate aerodrome.

D) known factors that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the alternate aerodrome.

For an IFR flight from the departure aerodrome A to the destination aerodrome B, the reduced contingency fuel has been applied, considering a Decision Point DP and an optional refuel destination C. Given the following information, how much Trip Fuel is required? Distance from A to B: 2100 NM Distance from A to C: 1150 NM Distance from A to DP: 980 NM TAS: 410 kt Fuel flow: 2800 kg/h Tailwind Component: 12 kt

A) 14341 kg

B) 7630 kg

C) 13934 kg ✓

D) 6502 kg

(For this question use annex 033-046 rev. 05.11.2004) A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: Optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg Temperature: ISA Tailwind component: 100 kts The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:

A) 71 NM / 1 000 kg; 5 330 kg/hr.

B) 86 NM / 1 000 kg; 6 515 kg/hr.

C) 105 NM / 1 000 kg; 5 330 kg/hr. ✓

D) 105 NM / 1 000 kg; 6 515 kg/hr.

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight from Paris to Barcelona. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 4560 kg Fuel flow at 1500 feet above destination aerodrome: 2304 kg/h Fuel penalty when flying 2000 feet lower than optimum altitude: 232 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 115 kg

B) 232 kg

C) 192 kg

D) 228 kg ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 2000 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM 1800 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 3000 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 2600 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 950 kg Trip Fuel TF: 770 kg Minimum Block Fuel BF: 950 kg

A) Not able to carry Extra Fuel. ✓

B) 250 kg.

C) 620 kg.

D) 180 kg.

Comparing the integrated range and the average fuel flow procedure, which of the following statement is correct?

A) The integrated range procedure is more accurate and reflects the different fuel flows during different phases of flight. ✓

B) The average fuel flow procedure is more accurate and reflects the fuel consumption during different phases of flight.

C) The integrated range procedure is easier and faster when determining fuel even for long range flights.

D) The average fuel flow procedures allow an accurate monitoring of fuel even for long range flights.

(For this question use annex 033-025 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3). A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lb fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 10 lb of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time overhead to overhead is 03 hours and 12 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 23 in.HG or full throttle, 2300 RPM, 20°C lean. Flight level is 70 and OAT is ISA + 20°C. The minimum block fuel is:

A) 306 lb

B) 289 lb

C) 325 lb ✓

D) 349 lb

Refer to figure. Consider the European Regulations on Air Operations as applicable to Commercial Air Transport. What is the Final Reserve Fuel for a turbine-engined aircraft with a weight of 48000 kg?

A) 1850 kg

B) 881 kg

C) 1387 kg

D) 925 kg ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 62700 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass: 76000 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 10000 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 13100 kg

A) 2460 kg.

B) 2900 kg.

C) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

D) 440 kg. ✓

Maximum Allowable Take-Off Mass: 64 400 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 56 200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 53 000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 35 500 kg Estimated Load: 14 500 kg Estimated Trip Fuel: 4900 kg Minimum Take Off Fuel: 7400 kg It is then decided to ‘fuel tanker’ because of the very expensive fuel cost at the destination aerodrome. For every additional 1000 kg of fuel carried in excess of the stated minimum take-off fuel, there is a fuel burn penalty of 75 kg. What is the maximum extra fuel that can be loaded and the maximum permitted take off fuel?

A) 4000 kg Max Extra, 10 400 kg Max permitted take off fuel

B) 3200 kg Max Extra, 11 900 kg Max permitted take off fuel

C) 2700 kg Max Extra, 10 800 kg Max permitted take off fuel

D) 4000 kg Max Extra, 11 400 kg Max permitted take off fuel ✓

Given the following planning data, calculate the maximum possible extra fuel in kg, including any fuel penalty, that can be uplifted: Maximum Ramp Mass: 77,500kg Maximum Take Off Mass: 73,000kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66,360kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62,720kg Dry Operating Mass: 42,845kg Traffic Load: 17460kg Planned Take Off Fuel: 10365kg Trip Fuel: 7890kg Taxi Fuel: 195kg Fuel Penalty: 135kg/1000kg of extra fuel Max Fuel Tank Capacity: 21,000kg

A) 2140 kg

B) 3260 kg

C) 1450 kg

D) 2330 kg ✓

Given the following planning data, calculate the maximum possible extra fuel in kg, including any fuel penalty that can be uplifted: Maximum Ramp Mass: 77,500kg Maximum Take Off Mass: 77,000kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66,360kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62,720kg Dry Operating Mass: 42,845kg Traffic Load: 17460kg Planned Take Off Fuel: 10365kg Trip Fuel: 7890kg Taxi Fuel: 195kg Fuel Penalty: 135kg/1000kg of extra fuel Max Fuel Tank Capacity: 14,000kg

A) 6635 kg

B) 3440 kg ✓

C) 3580 kg

D) 4139 kg

What is the maximum extra fuel that may be uplifted? MZFM: 170,000 kg MTOM: 223,000 kg MLM: 182,000 kg Planned ZFM: 165,767 kg TOF: 51,616 kg Trip Fuel: 45854 kg Fuel Penalty: Take Off: 282.7/1000 kg Landing: 394/1000 kg

A) 4988 kg

B) 2396 kg

C) 5617 kg ✓

D) 4328 kg

(For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1). Given: Brake release mass: 58 000 kg Temperature: ISA +15°C The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is

A) 1250 kg ✓

B) 1450 kg

C) 1350 kg

D) 1150 kg

The Trip Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight must consider...

A) fuel for 30 minutes holding in 1500 ft at the destination.

B) the expected departure and arrival routing. ✓

C) fuel up to the end of the missed approach procedure.

D) the required fuel for an APU during the whole operation.

Refer to figure. Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions, given: OAT: 13°C PA: 8 000 ft RPM: 2 300

A) 22.4 in.Hg and 69.3 lbs/hr ✓

B) 22.4 in.Hg and 71.1 lbs/hr

C) 23.0 in.Hg and 69.0 lbs/hr

D) 22.4 in.Hg and 73.8 lbs/hr

Maximum allowable take-off mass: 56 300 kg Maximum landing mass: 51 300 kg Dry operating mass: 29 100 kg Load: 11 700 kg Trip fuel: 3 000 kg Contingency fuel: 215 kg Final reserve fuel: 1 250 kg Alternate fuel: 1 300 kg Taxi fuel: 200 kg Determine the maximum possible extra fuel that can be uplifted for this flight:

A) 5 756 kg

B) 9 735 kg

C) 7 535 kg

D) 7 735 kg ✓

Which person is entitled to require the uplift of Extra Fuel?

A) The operator.

B) The pilot flying.

C) The commander. ✓

D) The pilot monitoring.

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass MZFM: 2000 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass AZFM: 2000 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass RTOM: 3000 kg Maximum Landing Mass MLM: 2200 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 550 kg Trip Fuel TF: 190 kg Minimum Block Fuel (BF): 300 kg

A) 250 kg.

B) 90 kg. ✓

C) Not able to carry Extra Fuel.

D) 60 kg.

Calculate the maximum possible extra fuel, based on the flight and aircraft data given below. MTOM: 476 100 lb MLM: 387 350 lb MZFM: 362 700 lb Planned ZFM: 323 450 lb Trip fuel: 72 460 lb Take-off fuel:124 830 lb Fuel penalty:630 lb/1 000 lb

A) 11 530 lb

B) 18793 lb ✓

C) 27 820 lb

D) 31 162 lb

An IFR flight with a jet from departure A to destination B applying the decision point procedure (DPP) is planned with a decision point DP and en-route alternate C.How much fuel has to be carried given the following information? Distance A to B: 2 300 NM Distance A to C: 1 300 NM Distance A to DP: 850 NM TAS: 470 kt TWC: 32 kt Fuel flow: 2 600 kg/h

A) 14 239 kg ✓

B) 12 930 kg

C) 13 125 kg

D) 7 070 kg

An IFR flight from departure A to destination B applying the decision point procedure (DPP) is planned with a decision point DP and en-route alternate C. How much trip fuel is required given the following information? Distance A to B: 2 300 NM Distance A to C: 1 300 NM Distance A to DP: 1 150 NM TAS: 470 kt TWC: 32 kt Fuel flow: 2 600 kg/h

A) 12 211 kg

B) 11 952 kg

C) 11 913 kg ✓

D) 12 723 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the block fuel required for a 2 hours and 24 min (2.4 hours) - cruise time with a class B multi-engined piston aircraft? The departure aerodrome will be used as an alternate, in nil wind condition. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi Fuel: 10 L Normal fuel consumption: 95 L/h Holding Fuel Consumption: 76 L/h Departure/Go Around fuel: 40 L Approach and landing fuel: 20 L Extra Fuel: 0 L Discretionary Fuel: 0 L

A) 630 L

B) 597 L

C) 537 L

D) 657 L ✓

You refuel with 220 IMP Gallons. What is the mass in Kg with a specific gravity of 0.82?

A) 820 kg ✓

B) 224 kg

C) 220 kg

D) 840 kg

You refuel with 150 US Gallons. What is the mass in lb with an specific gravity of 0.75?

A) 697 lb

B) 1025.5 lb

C) 827 lb

D) 937.5 lb ✓

Given the following information, what fuel is required to be on board before engine start for a Commercial Air Transport flight? APU fuel flow: 150 kg/h Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/minute APU time: 38 minutes Taxi: 13 minutes Trip fuel (including contingency): 4250 kg Alternate and Final Reserve fuel: 3730 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 8075 kg

B) 4250 kg

C) 7980 kg

D) 8220 kg ✓

Explain the basic idea of the predetermined point procedure (PDP).

A) The predetermined point procedure (PDP) permits planning of a flight to a destination where no alternate is available. When the aircraft reaches the predetermined point, the probability to land at the destination must be almost certain, or the aircraft has to return to its departure.

B) The predetermined point procedure (PDP) is a procedure where the flight is not planned to the intended destination but to a closer aerodrome, and fuel, including contingency fuel, is computed to this aerodrome. The additional fuel to the real destination is taken as “extra”.At the predetermined point, the flight is “replanned” to the intended destination. It therefore increases payload by reduction of required contingency fuel.

C) The predetermined point procedure (PDP) requires the operator to predetermine a point at which a flight must divert to the alternate aerodrome when it is calculated in a fuel check that it has used some of its contingency fuel. It therefore increases flight safety by increase of the fuel that is still on board overhead the planned destination.

D) The predetermined point procedure (PDP) provides an option to select an aerodrome as destination alternate which is at a distance from the planned destination that it cannot be reached after first flying to the destination. It therefore increases maximum range by reduction of mandatory fuel reserves. ✓

When planning a flight according to the predetermined point procedure, what is the minimum amount of fuel that a piston-engined aircraft needs to carry? The greater of :

A) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to destination + contingency, additional fuel if required for at least 45 min + 15% of flight time at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is less and not less than final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to the destination alternate + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least fuel to fly for 45 minutes and not less than final reserve fuel ✓

B) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to destination + contingency, fuel to destination alternate, final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to the alternate + contingency, fuel from alternate back to destination, final reserve fuel

C) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to predetermined point via destination, trip fuel from predetermined point to alternate, final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to predetermined point via alternate, trip fuel from predetermined point to destination, final reserve fuel

D) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to destination + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least 2 hours at cruise consumption above the destination and not less than final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to the destination alternate + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation and not less than final reserve fuel

When planning a flight according to the predetermined point procedure, what is the minimum amount of fuel that a turbine-engined aircraft needs to carry? The greater of:

A) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to destination + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least 2 hours at cruise consumption above the destination and not less than final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to the destination alternate + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation and not less than final reserve fuel ✓

D) 1. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to destination + contingency, additional fuel if required for at least 45 min + 15% of flight time at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is less and not less than final reserve fuel 2. Taxi fuel, trip fuel to the destination alternate + contingency, additional fuel if required but at least fuel to fly for 45 minutes and not less than final reserve fuel

Refer to figure. Before departure, the APU is run for 15 minutes. The taxi time is expected to be 10 minutes. The APU uses an additional 5 kg of fuel to start.With the figures given in the annex, calculate the fuel consumption on the ground.

A) Approx. 144 kg ✓

B) Approx. 1 840 kg

C) Approx. 189 kg

D) Approx. 1 727 kg

You have just finished planning a flight and you require 3643 lb of fuel. The fuel tanker supplies fuel in US gallon with the specific gravity of 0.84. How many US gallons do you require?

A) 1146

B) 437

C) 367

D) 520 ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required fuel for take-off for an IFR flight with a turbine engine jet aircraft? Taxi fuel (with APU usage included) : 50 lb Climb fuel : 300 lb Cruise distance : 847 NAM Cruise fuel consumption : 6 lb/NAM Descent fuel : 200 lb Approach and Landing fuel : 250 lb Alternate fuel : 650 lb Contingency fuel : 5% Trip fuel Final reserve fuel : 2150 lb/h Fuel for missed approach at alternate : 450 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 5832 lb

B) 8399 lb

C) 8349 lb

D) 7849 lb ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required fuel for take-off for an IFR flight with a turbine engine jet aircraft? Taxi fuel (with APU usage included) :120 lb Climb fuel : 420 lb Cruise distance : 720 NAM Cruise fuel consumption : 4 lb/NAM Descent fuel : 230 lb Approach and Landing fuel : 250 lb Alternate fuel : 650 lb Contingency fuel : 5% Trip fuel Final reserve fuel : 2050 lb/h Fuel for missed approach at alternate : 350 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 4025 lb

B) 3780 lb

C) 5644 lb ✓

D) 5994 lb

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required block fuel for an IFR flight with a turbine engine jet aircraft? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel ( including APU usage): 150 kg Fuel for the climb to cruise level: 1600 kg Cruise distance to destination: 570 NAM Cruise fuel consumption: 6 kg/NAM Fuel for descent to the destination: 270 kg Fuel for approach & landing destination: 450 kg Contingency fuel: 5% of trip Fuel for alternate: 2150 kg Holding fuel flow at destination & alternate: 2200 kg/h Missed approach fuel at alternate: Extra Fuel: Discretionary Fuel: 270 kg 0 kg 0 kg

A) 9547 kg

B) 8990 kg

C) 9277 kg

D) 9427 kg ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required take-off fuel for an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight with a turbine engine jet aircraft? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel (including APU usage): 150 kg Fuel for the climb to cruise level: 1600 kg Cruise distance to destination: 570 NAM Cruise fuel consumption: 6 kg/NAM Fuel for descent to the destination: 270 kg Fuel for approach & landing destination: 450 kg Contingency fuel: 5% of trip Fuel for alternate: 2150 kg Holding fuel flow at destination & alternate: 2200 kg/h Missed approach fuel at alternate: 270 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 9427 kg

B) 8990 kg

C) 9547 kg

D) 9277 kg ✓

Consider a twin engine short haul jet. DOM: 53 000 kg No alternate required. Holding fuel consumption: 4000 kg/h Due to adverse weather, the flight crew needed to use all the fuel initially planned for any contingencies. What quantity of fuel will remain in the tanks after landing?

A) 4000 kg

B) 2750 kg

C) 2000 kg

D) 3000 kg ✓

Given the following information, find the flight time and distance. Fuel flow: 9.6 USG/h TAS: 100 kt Wind: 15 kt TWC Fuel on board: 50 USG

A) 5 h 20 min and 599 NM

B) 5 h 20 min and 521 NM

C) 5 h 12 min and 521 NM

D) 5 h 12 min and 599 NM ✓

Refer to figure. You are planning to fly from A to B applying the decision point procedure; your trip time is computed to be 5 h. Assuming you move your decision point from C to D, how does the required fuel change with a fuel burn of 2 000 kg/h? The distance from A to C is equal to the distance from D to B.

A) No change

B) Increase by 50 kg

C) Decrease by 50 kg ✓

D) increase by 100 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 55 031 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass: 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 7 931 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 16 000 kg

A) 4991 kg.

B) 240 kg.

C) 4751 kg.

D) Not able to carry Extra Fuel. ✓

Refer to figure. Due to a hydraulic failure, the landing gear of a transport category aircraft stays extended after take-off. Based on the flight planning data given below, calculate the time penalty in percentage for the flight, based on (standard) endurance. Usable fuel: 6 metric tons Fuel consumption: 2400 kg/h

A) 38%

B) 26%

C) 74%

D) 65% ✓

Refer to figure. An aircraft with a mass of 46 500 kg is flying in long range cruise at FL280, under ISA conditions. The tailwind experienced during the flight decreases from 25 kt to 10 kt, what will be the impact in ground distance covered per 1 000 kg of fuel burnt?

A) Increase by 7 NM.

B) Decrease by 7 NM. ✓

C) Increase by 2 NM.

D) Decrease by 2 NM.

Refer to figure. Based on the values given on the attached figure, calculate the block fuel.

A) 54 133 kg

B) 12 900 kg

C) 56 246 kg ✓

D) 56 036 kg

Refer to figure. Given: Pressure altitude: 35 000 ft Cruise: FL350 Mach number: 0.74 Mass at the beginning of the sector: 50 000 kg OAT in cruise: -55°C Wind component in cruise: -25 kt Calculate the change in range, in NGM, if the aircraft was 1000 kg lighter and the temperature increased 10°C.

A) 187 NGM

B) 200 NGM ✓

C) 115 NGM

D) 65 NGM

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the minimum take-off fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a turbine engine jet aircraft? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip fuel: 7200 kg Alternate fuel: 4440 kg Destination holding fuel: 6450 kg/h Alternate holding fuel: 6000 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 15 403 kg

B) 14 225 kg

C) 15 000 kg

D) 15 178 kg ✓

A flight is planned according to the reduced contingency fuel (RCF) procedure. Calculate the minimum required amount of contingency fuel, given: Departure to destination: 460 NM Departure to alternate: 330 NM Departure to decision point: 280 NM True Air Speed (TAS): 180 kt Fuel consumption: 42 l/h

A) 4.1 l

B) 3.3 l

C) 3.9 l

D) 2.1 l ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required fuel for a VFR Commercial Air Transport flight with a reciprocating engines? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel Flow: 120 kg/h Trip Time: 4 h 39 min No alternate selected and good weather expected. Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 706 kg ✓

B) 586 kg

C) 676 kg

D) 558 kg

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the minimum taxi fuel (kg) required for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel for engine start: 150 kg Taxi time at departure aerodrome: 10 min Taxi time at destination aerodrome: 12 min Taxi fuel consumption: 60 kg/min APU time at departure aerodrome: 20 min APU time at destination aerodrome: 15 min APU fuel consumption: 840 kg/h Minimum taxi fuel by company regulation: 900 kg

A) 1 030 kg ✓

B) 1 750 kg

C) 880 kg

D) 900 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the required trip fuel for a turbine engine jet aircraft? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel: 240 kg APU consumption: 100 kg Take-off and climb fuel: 1550 kg Cruise fuel flow: 2820 kg/h Cruise time: 2 h 45 min Descent and Landing fuel: 280 kg Contingency fuel: 5% or 5 min Alternate fuel: 2200 kg Final reserve fuel: 1100 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 10 343 kg

B) 7755 kg

C) 9825 kg

D) 9585 kg ✓

Refer to figure. What will be the approximate change in ground distance covered per 1 000 kg of fuel burnt if the headwind increases from 25 kt to 35 kt? Aircraft mass at start of cruise leg: 50 000 kg Cruise level: FL280, LRC ISA conditions

A) Increases by 11 NM

B) Reduces by 11 NM

C) Increases by 4 NM

D) Reduces by 4 NM ✓

Determine the maximum extra fuel which can be uplifted, given: MTOM: 56 000 lb MLM: 45 000 lb MZFM: 42 000 lb DOM: 25 000 lb Traffic Load: 9 500 lb Trip Fuel: 10 000 lb Planned TOF: 15 000 lb Taxi Fuel: 300 lb Fuel penalty: 200 lb each 1 000 lb Tank capacity: 27 000 lb

A) 5 500 lb

B) 11 700 lb

C) 6 600 lb

D) 6 500 lb ✓

A flight shall be conducted according to the reduced contingency fuel procedure. Given the following information, calculate the minimum take-off fuel which must be loaded: Flight time from departure to decision point (DP): 5 h 17 min Flight from DP to destination 1 Flight time: 1 h 2 min Time to alternate: 21 min Flight from DP to destination 2 Flight time: 37 min Time to alternate: 18 min Average fuel consumption: 2 969 kg/h Final Reserve fuel: 1 320 kg in all cases

A) 22 051 kg

B) 19 874 kg

C) 21 266 kg ✓

D) 20 227 kg

Determine the fuel mass, given: Volume of the fuel: 590 US GAL Specific gravity: 0.75

A) 975 lb

B) 4921 lb

C) 3691 lb ✓

D) 1675 lb

Refer to figure. Consider a twin engine piston aircraft at cruising altitude. Determine the aircraft's fuel flow, given the following: Altitude: 20 000 ft Indicated airspeed: 100 kt Weight: 6 000 lbs

A) 375 lbs/hr

B) 360 lbs/hr

C) 435 lbs/hr

D) 420 lbs/hr ✓

Refer to figure. Due to a hydraulic failure, the landing gear of a transport category aircraft stays extended after take-off. Based on the flight planning data given below, calculate the time penalty for the flight, based on (standard) endurance. Usable fuel: 6 metric tons Fuel consumption: 2400 kg/h

A) 1 h 50

B) 53 min

C) 1.5 h

D) 1.6 h ✓

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the required alternate fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel for missed approach at destination: 300 kg Fuel for climb to cruising level: 850 kg Cruise distance to alternate: 170 NAM Fuel consumption (cruise): 6 kg/NAM Fuel for descent to alternate: 120 kg Fuel for approach and landing at alternate: 210 kg Fuel flow for holding at alternate: 2 200 kg/hr Fuel for missed approach at alternate: 170 kg

A) 3 600 kg

B) 2 670 kg

C) 2 500 kg ✓

D) 2 200 kg

You refuel with 670 IMP Gallons. What is the mass in Lbs with an specific gravity of 0.82?

A) 5 400 lbs

B) 2 498 lbs

C) 1 210 lbs

D) 5 508 lbs ✓

Determine the maximum attainable flight time and range, given the following information: Average fuel flow: 80 lb/h Available fuel: 270 lb TAS: 89 kt Wind component: 10 kt tailwind The flight time is (1) _ and the range is (2) _.

A) (1) 3 hours 23 minutes; (2) 301 NM.

B) (1) 3 hours 38 minutes; (2) 360 NM.

C) (1) 3 hours 38 minutes; (2) 267 NM.

D) (1) 3 hours 23 minutes; (2) 335 NM. ✓

A pilot is flying to an isolated airport and using the Predetermined point (PDP) procedure. Upon arriving at the predetermined point, the pilot can:

A) Fly to the destination aerodrome first and then to the alternate aerodrome.

B) Fly to the destination aerodrome or to the alternate aerodrome. ✓

C) Fly to the alternate aerodrome or back to the departure aerodrome.

D) Fly to the alternate aerodrome first and then to the destination aerodrome.

For pre-flight planning purposes what is the block fuel required? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel: 350 kg Trip fuel: 85 000 kg Contingency fuel: 5% of the Trip fuel Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg Alternate fuel: 5500 kg Discretionary fuel: 1500 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg

A) 99 600 kg ✓

B) 99 250 kg

C) 98 100 kg

D) 95 350 kg

The captain decided to load an extra 120 kg of fuel before the take-off: Take-off fuel: 910 Kg Trip fuel: 730 Kg Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW): 3 230 kg Maximum Landing Weight (MLW): 3 860 kg Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW): 4 290 kg

A) Proceed to an hold to lose 120 kg to be able to complete the landing.

B) No need to hold, there's no operational impact. ✓

C) The take-off is NOT possible under this condition.

D) Proceed to an hold to lose 30 kg to be able to complete the landing.

For an IFR flight planned to a destination aerodrome without any weather information available, the required fuel would be (airplane with jet engine):

A) To fly to the destination, including one missed approach at the DA, then a flight to one of the two selected alternate airports requiring the most fuel and then for another 30 minutes flying + contingency fuel. ✓

B) To fly to the destination, including one missed approach at the DA, then a flight to the alternate airport and then for another 45 minutes flying + contingency fuel.

C) Planning an IFR flight to an airport without sufficient weather service is not allowed.

D) To fly to the destination and then to fly for another 45 minutes in a holding at 1 500 feet AGL + contingency fuel.

Refer to figure. Operating the MRJT1 aeroplane you estimate to taxi for 10 minutes before take-off and operate the APU for 20 min before take-off. How much fuel will be used for these operations?

A) 245 kg

B) 202 kg

C) 148 kg ✓

D) 102 kg

Refer to figure. Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Determine the fuel flow, given: Estimated Landing Mass: 49 700 kg Cruising level: FL280 Average wind: 280°/40 kt Average True Course: 320° Procedure for descent: 0.74 M/250 KIAS

A) 880 kg/h

B) 870 kg/h

C) 860 kg/h ✓

D) 850 kg/h

Given the following information, calculate the maximum attainable flight time and range. Average fuel flow: 31.5 kg/h Available fuel: 76 kg TAS: 85 kt Wind component: 20 kt tailwind The flight time is (1) and the range is (2) .

A) (1) 2 hours 41 minutes; (2) 157 NM

B) (1) 2 hours 25 minutes; (2) 253 NM ✓

C) (1) 2 hours 41 minutes; (2) 282 NM

D) (1) 2 hours 25 minutes; (2) 205 NM

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to reduce speed to Mach .754. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 220 NM Aircraft mass: 50 000 kg TAT: -42°C Average wind component: 45 kt tailwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 50 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 863 kg

B) 837 kg ✓

C) 808 kg

D) 889 kg

Refer to figure. The annex shows an extract of the route info page on a typical operational flight produced by a flight planning tool.You are flying from GVAC to EGCC and notice there are three different distances shown on the flight plan. What is the significance of the difference between GND DIST and AIR DIST?

A) GND DIST is the actual planned route distance but it is shorter because there is an average headwind component for the flight. ✓

B) AIR DIST is the distance actually flown by the aeroplane taking into account the expected departure, cruise, and arrival routings.

C) The difference between GND DIST and AIR DIST is a measure of the difference in radius of the great circle at MSL and at cruising altitude.

D) AIR DIST is the longest distance because it considers the altitude in addition to the route distance and shows the distance in three dimensions.

Refer to figure. The annex shows the fuel breakdown for a flight from VOGO (Goa) to EGCC (Manchester). The pilots decide to carry an extra 1500 kg of fuel due to weather at the destination. Using a fuel flow of 4.6 tonnes per hour, how much extra holding time in minutes will this extra fuel give at the destination of EGCC, if required?

A) 15 min ✓

B) 28 min

C) 24 min

D) 20 min

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 minutes Climb to cruise level: 8 minutes Cruise distance: 75 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: 10 kt headwind Anticipated hold at the alternate: 12 minutes Descent to the alternate: 7 minutes Approach to the alternate: 6 minutes

A) 68 minutes

B) 72 minutes ✓

C) 66 minutes

D) 60 minutes

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 2300 lb Alternate Fuel: 950 lb Taxi Fuel: 180 lb Reserve Fuel: 480 lb En-route alternate: NOT applicable Fuel to fly 5 minutes at 1500 ft above destination: 80 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 230 lb

B) 69 lb

C) 80 lb

D) 115 lb ✓

Given the following information, calculate the minimum required fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight in accordance with the Reduced Contingency Fuel Procedure. Taxi Fuel: 230 kg Trip Fuel to the Decision Point: 8 355 kg Trip Fuel from the Decision Point to the commercial destination: 2 120 kg Trip Fuel from the Decision Point to the optional refuel destination: 1 860 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 200 kg No Additional Fuel is required No Extra Fuel is required There is a suitable fuel en-route alternate (ERA) for the flight to the optional refuel destination. No destination alternate requirements exist for both destination aerodromes.

A) 11 952 kg

B) 12 011 kg ✓

C) 12 156 kg

D) 12 429 kg

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the required Alternate Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Fuel for a missed approach at destination: 280 kg Fuel for the climb to cruise level: 900 kg Cruise distance to the alternate: 230 NM Cruise fuel consumption: 6.5 kg / NAM Fuel for the descent to the alternate: 125 Kg Fuel for the Approach and Landing at the Alternate: 220 kg Holding fuel flow at the alternate: 2000 kg /h Fuel for a missed approach at the alternate: 230 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 2740 kg

B) 4020 kg

C) 3250 kg

D) 3020 kg ✓

Refer to figure. The figure shows a typical fuel plan for a Commercial Air Transport flight with operational impact factors as produced by a flight planning tool. Since the aeroplane has arrived late, it is planned to fly the next flight at a higher speed. Use the data below to calculate the revised flight time. Revised speed: M 0.80 Revised weight: 1500 Kg up Cruising Altitude: Planned Flight Level.

A) 6 hours 29 minutes

B) 5 hours 11 minutes

C) 6 hours 7 minutes

D) 4 hours 59 minutes ✓

Refer to figure. The annex shows a typical fuel plan with operational impact factors as produced by a flight planning tool. When arriving at the plane the Commander is informed that some additional cargo has been loaded. This extra weight means that the aeroplane is NOT to reach its planned cruising level. Use the data below to determine the revised Trip Fuel. Cargo: +600 kg Cruising level: -2000 ft Cruising speed according to the flight plan.

A) 14926 kg

B) 14720 kg

C) 15132 kg ✓

D) 15190 kg

A performance class B aircraft is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel (to the nearest 10 kg) required when overhead the Isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 45 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Normal fuel consumption at cruise: 540 kg per hour

A) 570 kg ✓

B) 410 kg

C) 1080 kg

D) 630 kg

Given the following information, what is the fuel mass? Fuel volume: 670 Imperial gallons Specific gravity: 0.78

A) 5226 lb ✓

B) 8590 lb

C) 4358 lb

D) 6700 lb

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Block Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeroplane, given the following information? The operator has nominated a suitable En-Route Alternate aerodrome. Departure Taxi Fuel: 150 kg Trip Fuel: 2101 kg Alternate Fuel: 2046 kg Destination Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Average fuel flow: 3317 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 2735 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6143 kg

B) 5728 kg

C) 5893 kg ✓

D) 5578 kg

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is planning to depart for an isolated destination Aerodrome as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel required (to the nearest 10 kg), when overhead the isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 30 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Normal fuel consumption cruise: 780 kg per hour Alternate fuel: to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level

A) 880 kg

B) 570 kg

C) 820 kg ✓

D) 1560 kg

Refer to figure. (For this question use CAP 697 Figure 4.3.1a) You are planning a flight with a Medium Range Jet Transport (MRJT) Aeroplane. Given the following data and Simplified Planning Charts, determine the trip time. Trip distance: 425 NM Cruise pressure altitude: 30000 ft Estimated landing weight: 55000 kg Average trip wind: 25 kt headwind Temperature deviation: ISA +5°C Cruise mode: Long Range Cruise

A) 1.25 hours ✓

B) 1.40 hours

C) 1.05 hours

D) 1.50 hours

A flight from aerodrome A to aerodrome B is planned using the Reduced Contingency Fuel Procedure. The decision point along the route is DP and aerodrome C is the optional refuelling destination. Given the following data calculate the minimum fuel required for the flight from A to B. Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Alternate Fuel: 2 000 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 500 kg Trip Fuel A to B via DP: 13 000 kg Trip Fuel A to C via DP: 11 000 kg Trip Fuel DP to B: 5 000 kg

A) 16700 kg

B) 15300 kg

C) 17000 kg ✓

D) 17400 kg

Refer to figure. (For this question use CAP 697 Figure 4.5.2) Describe how to convert nautical ground miles (NGM) into nautical air miles (NAM).

A) Use the air distance to enter the graph. Travel horizontally to the appropriate ground distance line.Travel vertically to intersect the wind component, and finally travel horizontally to read the nautical air miles.

B) Use the TAS to enter the graph. Travel horizontally to the zero wind reference line. Travel vertically to the appropriate ground distance line, and finally travel horizontally to read the nautical air miles.

C) Use the TAS to enter the graph. Travel horizontally left to the actual wind component. Travel vertically to the appropriate ground distance line, and finally travel horizontally to read the nautical air miles. ✓

D) Enter from the bottom of the graph using the zero-wind reference line. Travel vertically to the appropriate ground distance line and finally move horizontally to read the nautical miles.

Refer to figure. (For this question use annex CAP 697 Figure 4.3.1a). Given the following data calculate the Trip Fuel. Long Range Cruise Temperature deviation: ISA -5°C Trip distance: 500 NM Wind: 25 kt tailwind Pressure altitude: 37 000 ft Landing weight: 40 000 kg

A) 2680 kg ✓

B) 3000 kg

C) 2800 kg

D) 2860 kg

Refer to figure. During pre-flight planning you decide that NO alternate aerodrome/heliport is required for your flight. During cruise an in-flight fuel check reveals that the fuel consumption is higher than planned. What is the minimum amount of fuel required on arrival at the destination aerodrome/heliport?

A) 1424 kg

B) 1075 kg ✓

C) 1375 kg

D) 1665 kg

Refer to figure. If the fuel flow in the cruise was exactly as the crew expected when planning the flight, what is the expected fuel remaining for the fuel check overhead TORDU at 19:42? All Flight Log fuels are in kg.

A) 263 kg ✓

B) 256 kg

C) 277 kg

D) 248 kg

Refer to figure. In the figure, all fuel figures are in kg. For this flight, how does the fuel consumption from top of climb to TORDU compare to the planned fuel consumption? The actual fuel consumption is…

A) 3 kg/h lower than planned.

B) 8 kg/h higher than planned. ✓

C) The same as planned.

D) 5 kg/h higher than planned.

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Trip Fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip distance: 122 NM TAS: 145 kt Headwind component: 15 kts Average fuel flow: 4500 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 3786 kg

B) 3431 kg

C) 4223 kg ✓

D) 3877 kg

Given the following information, what is the fuel volume? Fuel Mass: 865 Ib Specific Gravity: 0.81

A) 107 Imperial gallons. ✓

B) 70 Imperial gallons.

C) 128 Imperial gallons.

D) 87 Imperial gallons.

Refer to figure. Given the following information, calculate the time and distance from take-off to Top of Climb: Aerodrome pressure altitude: 4000 ft Aerodrome OAT: +8°C Cruise pressure altitude: 10000 ft Cruise OAT: -6°C

A) 9 min; 17 NAM ✓

B) 17 min; 9 NAM

C) 17 min; 27 NAM

D) 6 min; 10 NAM

Refer to figure. Refer to CAP 697 Figure 3.4. From the meteorology charts for your route, you make the following observations: Pressure Altitude 4000 ft: OAT+11°C, headwind component 10 kt Pressure Altitude 6000 ft: OAT+07°C, headwind component 10 kt Pressure Altitude 7000 ft: OAT+02°C, headwind component 12 kt Pressure Altitude 8000 ft: OAT+0°C, headwind component 20 kt The fuel flow given for flying at 45% power is 16 gallons per hour. What should be the most fuel efficient pressure altitude to fly a route distance of 300 NM?

A) 7000 ft

B) 4000 ft

C) 8000 ft

D) 6000 ft ✓

The commander decides to increase the Block Fuel by 1 200 kg due to an expected holding at the destination aerodrome as this equates to approximately 30 minutes of holding. After take-off, the FMS indicates that there is only 27 minutes of extra holding fuel despite the payload being as originally planned. What is the reason for this?

A) The Flight is NOT following its original route and shortcuts increase the Trip Fuel.

B) The FMC gives inaccurate results of calculations and therefore it cannot be relied on.

C) The Extra Fuel has made the aeroplane heavier, thus the Trip fuel is increased. ✓

D) There is a stronger tailwind component than planned, leading to an increase of Trip Fuel.

Refer to figure. A pilot on a short VFR flight fills in the flight log, as seen in the image. The aircraft departed with slightly more fuel than the planned fuel, but within operational limits. The planned take-off and landing masses are shown on the log. The pilot wants to estimate their landing mass. TO do this, they assume that the fuel flow from their current position (seeshaupt) to the Top of Descent (Tall Mast) will be the same as the average for the cruise so far and that the fuel used in the descent will be 28 kg, which is the same as the original plan. What is the pilot's estimate of the actual Landing Mass?

A) 2626 kg

B) 2689 kg

C) 2696 kg ✓

D) 2672 kg

Given the following data: Cruise TAS: 120 kt. Fuel flow in cruise: 22 USG/h. Cruise distance: 150 NM. Once the climb is completed, there is 20 kt of headwind. What is the cruise fuel?

A) 35 USG

B) 25 USG

C) 27 USG

D) 33 USG ✓

Refer to figure. A reciprocating engine aeroplane is flying in ISA conditions. Which altitude should a pilot choose to fly: 4 000 ft or 10 000 ft?

A) 4000 ft because of the lower TAS.

B) 4 000 ft because it is fuel efficient.

C) 10 000 ft because of the quicker route.

D) 10 000 ft because it is fuel efficient. ✓

Refer to figure. A twin-engine jet aeroplane cruises at FL370. Given the following information, what is the fuel required for the remainder of the cruise time? Mass: 52 500 kg Cruise Altitude: FL370 Distance to Top-of-Descent: 164 NM TAT: -42°C Nil wind Consider a constant aircraft mass of 52 500 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 745 kg

B) 743 kg

C) 728 kg ✓

D) 736 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Jet aircraft aeroplane, given the following information? A suitable airport has been nominated as the En-Route alternate aerodrome. Route Distance: 2548 NM Air Distance: 2725 NM Estimated TAS: 431 kt Estimated flight time to the alternate: 34 minutes Average wind component: 28 kt headwind Average fuel flow: 3048 kg/h Final reserve: 1351 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 21 639 kg

B) 22 929 kg ✓

C) 24 344 kg

D) 23 315 kg

A Commercial Air Transport flight will need to land at an alternate aerodrome. The Commander must ensure that the remaining fuel upon landing at that aerodrome is NOT less than the...

A) fuel required to fly for 45 minutes at cruise speed.

B) fuel required to fly for 15 minutes at holding speed.

C) fuel required for a go-around and subsequent visual landing.

D) final reserve fuel. ✓

The commander of a commercial air transport flight has been scheduled for the same flight in three consecutive days. During the first two flights he/she notices that the actual payload is higher than anticipated, having as a consequence increased fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome. If during the pre-flight fuel calculation for the third day, the commander decides to anticipate a similar event by adding 500 kg of fuel, this should be added as part of the....

A) discretionary fuel (formerly: extra fuel). ✓

B) contingency fuel.

C) additional fuel.

D) trip fuel.

The flight crew has 1 hour flight time remaining of a 4 hours flight towards the destination aerodrome. The FMS displays the message DEST EFOB BELOW MIN and the Commander looks at the FMS data to see that there is an estimated 0.3 tonnes less fuel than required when arriving at the destination. Under NORMAL circumstances for a commercial Air transport flight with one destination alternate nominated, what is the minimum fuel to be expected on board when arriving at the destination aerodrome?

A) Alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel. ✓

B) Final reserve fuel only.

C) Contingency fuel plus alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel.

D) Contingency fuel plus final reserve fuel.

Refer to figure or CAP file 4.3.1.a. Using the simplified Flight Planning Charts, given the following information: Trip distance: 300 NM ISA deviation: +10ºC Average wind: 75 kt headwind Pressure altitude: 29 000 ft Estimated Landing Weight: 40 000 kg Long Range Cruise Determine the fuel required.

A) 2480 kg ✓

B) 2580 kg

C) 2000 kg

D) 1700 kg

A piston-engined aeroplane on an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight arrives at its destination with the minimum fuel on board. During the approach procedure, the aircraft is forced to divert from the missed approach point to the alternate. Given the following information: Trip Fuel: 235 litres Alternate Fuel: 38 litres Fuel for go around and one approach: 22 litres Fuel flow at cruise speed: 80 l/h Fuel flow at holding speed: 60 l/h The minimum fuel required at the destination is (1) _ and the minimum fuel required at the alternate is (2) _.

A) (1) 95 litres; (2) 57 litres

B) (1) 98 litres; (2) 60 litres

C) (1) 100 litres; (2) 40 litres

D) (1) 83 litres; (2) 45 litres ✓

Given the following information, calculate the estimated estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Remaining useable fuel: 2100 lb DOM: 9900 lb Traffic Load: 3160 lb Remaining Trip Fuel to Destination: 800 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 485 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 420 lb Extra fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 13 860 lb

B) 15 265 lb

C) 13 940 lb

D) 14 360 lb ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Jet aircraft aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3740 kg Fuel to alternate: 936 kg Taxi Fuel: 140 kg Fuel flow at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome: 2132 kg/h Fuel flow at 1500 ft above destination alternate: 2400 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6200 kg ✓

B) 4816 kg

C) 6948 kg

D) 6069 kg

Refer to figure. The figure depicts a fuel plan as created by a flight planning tool for a return flight LFPG-EIDW-LFPG. During the pre-flight preparations, the Operations Department calls the pilot and advises him/her to refuel at LFPG, due to some fuel-supply issues at EIDW. In order to reduce the environmental impact, the pilot will consider the least possible fuel tankering. What is the MINIMUM amount of fuel tankering to ensure the target fuel for EIDW-LFPG remains on board after landing at EIDW?

A) 3495 kg

B) 7526 kg

C) 4432 kg

D) 5506 kg ✓

Refer to figure. An extract from a typical flight plan produced by an airline flight planning tool. Assume that the fuel flow remains the same as experienced between OKEPI and OKIRA and that the actual times between the waypoints are as planned. What is the estimated remaining fuel overhead MOKIP?

A) 5550 kg ✓

B) 5319 kg

C) 5499 kg

D) 5540 kg

Refer to figure. You are planning a trip from London, Heathrow to St John's, Newfoundland and return. Operations have informed you that the fuel at St John's is much more expensive and want to know how much extra fuel you can tanker. Given the following information, what quantity of extra fuel is the aircraft able to carry? Assume a departure / destination fuel price ratio of 0.915. Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2000 NM MTOM: 205 000 kg MLM: 175 000 kg Planned TOM: 185 000 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 40 000 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 30 000 kg Planned Trip Fuel: 18 000 kg

A) 10 000 kg

B) 20 000 kg

C) 8 000 kg ✓

D) 24 000 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted, if the Commander wants to climb directly to the optimum altitude of 37 000 ft. Maximum Take-off Mass (MTOM) to climb at FL370: 68 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass (AZFM): 59 031 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM): 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 4 761 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 8 000 kg

A) 8000

B) 1209 ✓

C) 9209

D) 4330

An aircraft is flying a route from position A to B, a distance of 57 Nautical Ground Miles (NGM). Given the following information: True Airspeed (TAS): 125 kt Forecast wind: 240°/30 kt Course: 205° (M) Variation: 15° W What is the distance covered in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) ?

A) 74.2 NAM

B) 68.5 NAM ✓

C) 66.0 NAM

D) 72.0 NAM

Refer to figure or CAP file 2.4. Given the following information, calculate the Ground range. Aeroplane Mass at start-up: 3663 lb Aviation gasoline fuel load (density 6 lb/gal): 74 US gal Take-off altitude: Sea Level Headwind component: 30 kt Cruising altitude: 8000 ft Power setting: Full throttle 2300 RPM 20° lean of peak EGT

A) 798 NM

B) 656 NM

C) 686 NM ✓

D) 844 NM

Refer to figure. For Mass and Balance and Aerodynamic purposes, a pilot decides to refuell only the inner and outer wing tanks on both sides, while the centre tank remains empty. How much fuel is available ?

A) 18 728 kg

B) 10 870 kg

C) 12 252 kg ✓

D) 15 608 kg

Your fuel flow is 17 US gallons/ hour and your fuel quantity is 45 imperial gallons, what is your endurance?

A) 3 h 20 min

B) 3 h 06 min

C) 3 h 11 min ✓

D) 4 h

During the pre-flight briefing process, the Pilot-in-Command of a Commercial Air Transport flight notices that a thunderstorm activity is predicted along the planned route, which may cause deviations of more than 50 NM from the route. To determine the minimum ramp fuel, what should the Pilot-in-Command do, provided that the above deviation will increase the distance to be flown?

A) The Pilot-in-Command should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Trip Fuel.

B) The Pilot-in-Command should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Trip Fuel.

C) The Pilot-in-Command should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Reserve Fuel.

D) The Pilot-in-Command should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Discretionary Fuel. ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 5 min Climb to cruise level: 5 min Cruise distance: 65 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: +18 kt Anticipated hold at the alternate: 20 min Descent to the alternate: 4 min Approach to the alternate: 5 min

A) 58 min

B) 70 min

C) 43 min

D) 63 min ✓

Due to significant weather conditions in the vicinity of the destination aerodrome, the pilot of a Commercial Air Transport flight has to plan for two destination alternate aerodromes. Given the following information, what is the Alternate Fuel required? Average cruise fuel flow: 46 kg/min Fuel for missed approach: 400 kg Flight time from missed approach altitude to destination first alternate: 54 min. Flight time from missed approach altitude to destination second alternate: 44 min.

A) 2 424 kg

B) 3 804 kg

C) 2 884 kg ✓

D) 4 264 kg

Refer to figure. A Medium-Range Jet Aircraft is planned to perform a Commercial Air Transport flight to Sal International Airport, Cabo Verde (GVAC). For operational purposes, the Tenerife South International Airport (GCTS) is the nominated destination alternate, but for facilitation reasons, the commercial flight must follow the isolated aerodrome procedure requirements. Using the data below and the figures in the annex, calculate the required Additional Fuel (ADDFU) for the destination and destination alternate. Average trip fuel flow: 2849 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h

A) 1424 kg, 5698 kg

B) 5698 kg, 1400 kg

C) 5698 kg, 1200 kg ✓

D) 2400 kg, 5698 kg

The pilot of a helicopter during the cruise phase is instructed by the ATC to adjust his/her routing, in order to avoid an airspace ahead, because of military activities, increasing the distance to be flown. The required fuel amount due to the increased flown distance is included in the...

A) Trip Fuel.

B) Contingency Fuel. ✓

C) Destination Alternate Fuel.

D) Final Reserve Fuel.

Given the following information, calculate the revised estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. DOM: 4515 kg Traffic Load: 2540 kg Remaining Usable Fuel: 960 kg Remaining Trip Fuel to the destination: 350 kg Alternate Fuel: 240 kg Final Reserve: 250 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 7415 kg

B) 8155 kg

C) 7405 kg

D) 7665 kg ✓

A pilot of a Commercial Air Transport operations company is planning to conduct an IFR flight from Departure aerodrome A, where a VOR approach can be only conducted with visibility below the landing minima, to a Destination aerodrome B above the planning minima but in IMC. Which considerations must be taken into account by the pilot during the pre-flight planning procedure, so as to determine the minimum fuel required, regarding that the above forecast conditions at both aerodromes are expected to remain the same?

A) NO destination alternate aerodrome is required as the weather at the destination aerodrome is forecast to remain above the planning minima, avoiding the need for Alternate Fuel.

B) The pilot must select two destination alternate aerodromes and carry sufficient Alternate Fuel to reach both aerodromes following an approach at the destination.

C) The pilot must select a destination alternate aerodrome that is within 1 hour's flight time from the destination aerodrome, and carry sufficient Alternate Fuel to reach that following an approach at the destination.

D) The pilot must select a take-off alternate aerodrome, which could be the destination aerodrome if operational minima permit, avoiding the need for Additional Fuel. ✓

A pilot is planning a flight from aerodrome M to aerodrome N and, so as to increase the traffic load, uses the Reduced Contingency Fuel procedure for his/her fuel calculations, selecting a decision point (DP) and an aerodrome R as optional refuel station. Given the information below, calculate the minimum fuel required from aerodrome M to N. Taxi Fuel at aerodrome M: 180 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 300 kg Trip fuel from M to N via DP: 8 500 kg Trip fuel from M to R: 7 800 kg Trip Fuel from DP to N : 3 500 kg Do NOT take into account Alternate and Extra Fuel. An ERA for the optional refuel station is NOT available.

A) 10 405 kg

B) 10 155 kg ✓

C) 10 235 kg

D) 9 670 kg

Which statement is correct regarding the policy on the Additional Fuel, according to the EU-OPS Regulations for Commercial Air Transport flights?

A) Fuel that is added at the discretion of the Commander.

B) An operation using the Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure: fuel to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

C) An operation WITH a destination aerodrome: fuel to hold for up to 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

D) An operation WITHOUT a destination alternate aerodrome: fuel to hold for 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions. ✓

The maximum fuel capacity of an aircraft is 1200 lb, and the pilot has to order fuel to fill up en route to the final destination. The pilot estimates landing at the fuelling point with 350 lb on board. How many 40 Imperial gallon fuel drums must be ordered if the fuel supplier states a specific gravity of 0.78?

A) 142

B) 3 ✓

C) 5

D) 4

Given the following information, select the correct statement regarding the Alternate Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight for which an En-Route Alternate (ERA) aerodrome is considered. ERA for 3 % Contingency fuel: LFPR Destination aerodrome: DESA Destination alternate aerodrome: ALTB

A) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from DESA to LFPR or from DESA to ALTB, whichever requires the greater amount of fuel.

B) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from LFPR to DESA in the event of an en-route diversion to LFPR and then sufficient to fly from DESA to ALTB.

C) The fuel for a diversion to LFPR is included in the Trip Fuel. Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from DESA to ALTB. ✓

D) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from a point en-route to LFPR and then from DESA to ALTB, so it includes the flight time to all alternate aerodromes.

The calculated fuel for a flight is 2 500 kg. However, due to expected delays during flight, the commander decides to order an additional 100 kg of fuel. Due to miscommunication, the refueling team provides only 2 500 kg. In such situation, the refueling team shoud:

A) NOT be informed because 2 500 kg of fuel is enough for the planned route.

B) Be informed and the fuel added as long as it does not delay the departure.

C) Be informed because those 100 kg are part of the necessary fuel for the flight. ✓

D) NOT be informed because Contingency fuel covers those 100 kg of Extra Fuel.

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 min Climb to cruise level: 8 min Cruise distance: 55 NM Cruise TAS: 165 kt Headwind: 10 kt Expected holding at the alternate: 10 min Descent to the alternate: 6 min Approach to the alternate: 6 min

A) 51 min

B) 47 min

C) 57 min ✓

D) 55 min

Refer to figure. Given the information in the Flight Log excerpt, calculate the actual fuel consumption rate from BRAVO to DELTA, provided that the flight conditions on the flight legs from BRAVO to CHARLIE and the fuel consumption remain unchanged.

A) 949 lb/h

B) 780 lb/h ✓

C) 325 lb/h

D) 1118 lb/h

After an engine failure, the Commander of a Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane executes a drift-down procedure and stabilizes at a cruising altitude significantly below the normal cruising altitude. His/her decision to proceed to an adequate alternate, increases significantly the fuel consumption compared to the planned consumption. Although he/she has planned for Trip Fuel, Contingency Fuel, Alternate Fuel and Final Reserve Fuel, he/she has NOT included in the fuel planning a sufficient quantity for this engine-out situation. Which option is correct for the above scenario?

A) The Alternate Fuel must plan for such an event, and the fuel planning must therefore be INCORRECT.

B) Fuel for this event must be included in the Contingency Fuel; the fuel planning is therefore INCORRECT.

C) The Final Reserve Fuel must plan for such an event, and the fuel planning must therefore be INCORRECT.

D) The Additional Fuel ensures that sufficient fuel is carried for such an event. ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in an MRJT aeroplane, given the following information? The operator has nominated a suitable En-Route Alternate aerodrome according to the basic fuel scheme with variations. Estimated flight time: 03:57 Estimated flight time to alternate: 00:20 Average fuel flow: 2856 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 2600 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 13 871 kg ✓

B) 14 097 kg

C) 13 533 kg

D) 12 754 kg

An aircraft planning to fly a total distance of 450 NM, after flying for 1 hour 20 minutes it covers 160 NM and its actual fuel remaining is 890 I. Given the following information and assuming that the actual fuel consumption remains at the same rate, what will be the actual fuel remaining at destination? Average TAS: 145 kt Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1 350 l Planned average fuel flow: 360 l/h

A) 20 l

B) 55 l ✓

C) 589 l

D) 460 l

An aircraft is flying a route from position A to B, a distance of 57 Nautical Ground Miles (NGM). Given the following information: True Airspeed (TAS): 145 kt Forecast wind: 240°/30 kt Course: 205°(M) Variation: 15°W What is the distance covered in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) ?

A) 57 NAMs

B) 66 NAMs ✓

C) 69 NAMs

D) 71 NAMs

Given the following information, the pilot finally decides to fly with TAS 140 kt, because of a stronger headwind more than the forecast. What will be the difference in the fuel consumption between the planned and the actual conditions? Distance A-B: 240 NGM Planned TAS: 130 kt Planned headwind (HWC): 10 kt Actual headwind (HWC): 25 kt Fuel flow with TAS 130 kt: 36 kg/hr Fuel flow with TAS 140 kt: 42 kg/hr

A) 6 kg

B) 21 kg

C) 16 kg ✓

D) 72 kg

A flight from aerodrome H to aerodrome G is planned using the Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure aiming to increase the traffic load. The decision point along the route is DP and aerodrome R is the optional refuelling destination. Given the following data, calculate the minimum fuel required for from H to G. Taxi fuel at aerodrome H: 160 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 200 kg Trip fuel from H to G via DP: 7 800 kg Trip fuel from H to R via DP: 7 250 kg Trip fuel from DP to G: 3 050 kg Alternate fuel and Extra Fuel is NOT required and an En-Route Alternate aerodrome (ERA) for the optional refuel station is NOT available.

A) 8 828 kg

B) 9 550 kg

C) 9 313 kg ✓

D) 8 973 kg

A Commercial Air Transport flight of 3 hours total flight time is planned to an aerodrome where no alternate is required. 1.5 hours after take-off, the pilot is informed that there will be a delay due to traffic on arriving at destination, thus he/she has to use 8 minutes out of the 15 minutes additional fuel. What action should be done in this case?

A) Declare an emergency when arriving at destination and ask for a priority clearance.

B) Proceed to an in-flight re-planning at a destination alternate.

C) Check the weather and if within minima proceed to the destination.

D) Proceed to the destination given that the aircraft can land with final reserve fuel intact. ✓

A Commercial Air Transport operation is to be pre-positioned to a remote operating location in mountainous terrain. The commander wishes to take as much extra fuel as possible. Given the following information, determine the maximum amount of Extra Fuel (including the fuel penalty) that the Commander can upload: MTOM: 6250 lb MLM: 4500 lb ZFM: 3825 lb Planned T/O fuel: 705 lb Trip fuel: 375 lb Fuel tank capacity: 1100 lb Fuel burn correction per 100 lb of extra fuel based upon: TOM +9.1 lb and LM +10 lb

A) 0 lb

B) 395 lb

C) 379 lb ✓

D) 345 lb

Given the following information, calculate the actual fuel at the destination for the Commercial flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Assume that the actual fuel consumption is maintained at the same rate. Total distance from A to B: 320 NM Fuel remaining after 1 hour 15 minutes: 859 US gal Distance travelled after 1 hour 15 minutes: 119 NM Average TAS: 115 kt Wind component: 20 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1280 US gal Planned average fuel flow: 380 US gal/h Extra fuel: 0 gal Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A) 421 US gal

B) 146 US gal ✓

C) 62 US gal

D) 55 US gal

A crew finds that the actual headwind is stronger than the forecast wind, and so flies at 140 kt TAS instead of the planned 130 kt TAS to minimise the delay to arrival. Determine the increase in fuel use for the flight leg, given: Fuel flow at 130 kt TAS: 162 kg/h Fuel flow at 140 kt TAS: 188 kg/h Forecast headwind component: 10 kt Actual headwind component: 25 kt Leg distance: 166 NM

A) 47 kg ✓

B) 25 kg

C) 15 kg

D) 11 kg

Determine the remaining endurance of the aircraft (ignoring any reserve fuel), given: An aircraft is on a taxi flight, and the fuel gauge is showing 41% of fuel left in the tank. Total Fuel capacity 514 l Fuel consumption 190 l/h

A) 2 h 43 min

B) 2 h 13 min

C) 1 h 11 min

D) 1 h 07 min ✓

Refer to figure. In the figure, all fuel figures are in kg. For this flight, how does the fuel consumption from top of climb to TORDU compare to the planned fuel consumption? The actual fuel consumption is...

A) 3 kg/h higher than planned.

B) 8 kg/h higher than planned.

C) The same as planned.

D) 5 kg/h higher than planned. ✓

Determine the fuel mass, given: Volume of the fuel: 590 US GAL Specific gravity: 0.72

A) 975 lb

B) 3 544 lb ✓

C) 4 921 lb

D) 3 691 lb

The following information is taken from the operational flight plan of a Medium Range Jet Transport (MRJT) Aeroplane. Calculate the minimum required fuel for take-off if the operator has nominated a suitable En-Route Alternate: Flight time: 03:15 Flight time from destination to alternate: 00:25 Cruise fuel flow: 2490 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 1950 kg/h

A) 11 320 kg

B) 10 348 kg ✓

C) 10 510 kg

D) 9 373 kg

Refer to figure or CAP697 Figure 4.4. Determine the final reserve fuel and corresponding time for a twin jet aircraft under performance class A performing a Commercial Air Transport flight, given the following information: Arrival mass at alternate: 50 000 kg Arrival mass at destination: 52 550 kg Alternate elevation: MSL Destination elevation: 1500 ft

A) 1180 kg, 30 minutes ✓

B) 2360 kg, 1 hour

C) 1865 kg, 45 minutes

D) 1180 kg, 15 minutes

Refer to figure. A twin-engine jet aeroplane cruises at FL370. Given the following information, what is the fuel required for the remainder of the cruise time? Mass: 52 500 kg Cruise Altitude: FL370 Distance to Top-of-Descent: 150 NM TAT: -42°C Wind: 25 kt head Consider a constant aircraft mass of 52 500 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 665 kg

B) 690 kg

C) 707 kg ✓

D) 714 kg

Which of the following statements is correct with regards to fuel tankering? 1. Fuel tankering should be considered when the fuel price at the destination aerodrome is higher than at the departure aerodrome. 2. Fuel tankering is considered suitable in case weather conditions at the destination aerodrome are below minima.

A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct ✓

D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Using the information given below, calculate the minimum required fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight in accordance with Reduced Contingency Fuel procedure. An en-route alternate is available for the optional refuel destination and no destination alternate requirements exist for both destination aerodromes. Taxi Fuel: 220 kg Trip Fuel to Decision Point: 7 770 kg Trip Fuel from Decision Point to commercial destination: 2 220 kg Trip Fuel from Decision Point to optional refuel destination: 2 440 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 100 kg Additional Fuel: not required Extra Fuel: not required Discretionary Fuel: not required

A) 12 387 kg

B) 11 837 kg ✓

C) 12 120 kg

D) 11 421 kg

Refer to figure. Using the graph above and the following information, determine the Nautical Air Miles (NAM). TAS = 350 kt Headwind Component = 40 kt Ground Distance = 440 NM

A) 497 NAM ✓

B) 389 NAM

C) 395 NAM

D) 480 NAM

Given the following information, what is the minimum block fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane using the Basic Fuel Scheme WITH variations for Reduced Contingency Fuel? Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Trip Fuel A to DP: 12 000 kg Trip Fuel DP to Destination: 9000 kg Trip Fuel DP to optional refuelling destination: 3000 kg Destination Alternate Fuel (for both possible destinations): 2000 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1350 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 21 650 kg

B) 23 750 kg

C) 25 100 kg ✓

D) 19 400 kg

Refer to figure. For pre-flight planning purposes, calculate the total fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane, given the following information. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. The weather at the destination aerodrome is forecast to be below the applicable minima, but two alternates with suitable weather have been chosen. The flight's payload means that minimum block fuel will be taken. Taxi Fuel: 230 kg Trip distance: 250 NGM Average Wind Component: 50 kt headwind Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h Expected Landing Mass: 65000 kg Destination Alternate 1 Fuel: 1230 kg Destination Alternate 2 Fuel: 1950 kg Additional Fuel: 0 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 5805 kg ✓

B) 5075 kg

C) 4710 kg

D) 5550 kg

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The fuel price at the departure aerodrome is higher than that at the destination. 2. The fuel price ratio, departure to destination, is greater than 1. 3. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 2 and 3.

B) 1 and 2.

C) Only 2.

D) Only 3. ✓

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to reduce speed to Mach .786. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 310 NM Aircraft mass: 60 000 kg TAT: -22°C Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 60 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 1 196 kg

B) 837 kg

C) 1 544 kg

D) 1 590 kg ✓

The maximum fuel capacity of an aircraft is 1 400 lb, and the pilot has to order fuel to fill up en route to the final destination. The pilot estimates landing at the fuelling point with 350 lb on board. How many 40 Imperial gallon fuel drums must be ordered if the fuel supplier states a specific gravity of 0.78?

A) 6

B) 5

C) 4 ✓

D) 3

An aircraft planning to fly a total distance of 460 NM, after flying for 1 hour 09 minutes it covers 178 NM and its actual fuel remaining is 1019 I. Given the following information and assuming that the actual fuel consumption remains at the same rate, what will be the actual fuel remaining at destination? Average TAS: 145 kt Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1 350 l Planned average fuel flow: 360 l/h

A) 95 l

B) 342 l

C) 56 l

D) 495 l ✓

At the last minute, 15 passengers were unable to board an aircraft, resulting in a weight reduction of 1500 kg. The operational flight plan shows that a weight reduction of 1000 kg will apply a 205 kg reduction to the aircraft's trip fuel. Calculate the new trip fuel required for the flight. (Use interpolation)

A) 205 kg more than the original trip fuel requirement.

B) The same as the original trip fuel requirement.

C) 308 kg less than the original trip fuel requirement. ✓

D) 205 kg less than the original trip fuel requirement.

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is planning to depart for an isolated destination Aerodrome as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel required (to the nearest 10 kg), when overhead the isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 30 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Alternate fuel: to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level Normal fuel consumption cruise: 720 kg per hour

A) 540 kg

B) 740 kg

C) 820 kg

D) 760 kg ✓

Given the following information, what Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage: 10 minutes Planned taxi time: 10 minutes Taxi fuel: 5 kg/min APU fuel flow: 120 kg/h Engine startup: 5 kg

A) 50 kg

B) 65 kg

C) 75 kg ✓

D) 70 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. However, due to turbulence, you descend from FL380 to FL360. Determine the fuel consumed at FL360 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL360 is 295 NM, the TAT is -17ºC and the aeroplane mass is 65 000 kg.

A) 1 670 kg

B) 1 530 kg

C) 1 702 kg

D) 1 542 kg ✓

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel required?

A) Take-off, climb (including step climb), alternate, decent, approach, landing and taxi.

B) Take-off, climb (including step climb), discretionary, descent, approach and landing.

C) Take-off, climb (including step climb), contingency, descent, approach and landing.

D) Take-off, climb (including step climb), descent, approach and landing. ✓

Determine the fuel mass in lbs, given: Fuel volume: 465 litres Specific gravity: 0.72

A) 335 lb

B) 646 lb

C) 738 lb ✓

D) 1 424 lb

During the dispatch planning of a Commercial Air Transport flight towards a busy aerodrome, the Commander observes that single runway operations will be underway upon arrival. To prepare for possible delays, the decision is made to include an extra 15 minutes of endurance fuel. This additional fuel should be incorporated as part of the:

A) Trip fuel.

B) Extra fuel. ✓

C) Additional fuel.

D) Contingency fuel.

Determine the minimum planning fuel required for departure, for the following planned flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane: Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 2 862 lb Contingency Fuel: 143 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 494 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 430 lb Taxi Fuel: 100 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Tankering Fuel: 971 lb A destination alternate is required.

A) 5 200 lb

B) 5 000 lb

C) 4 029 lb ✓

D) 3 929 lb

Refer to figure. Due to operational requirements, fuel must be tankered on departure from the aerodrome. Given a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.93 and the provided data, determine the optimum amount of fuel that can be tankered: Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2 000 NM Planned Take-Off Mass: 180 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a Trip Fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum Landing Mass: 170 000 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass: 210 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg

A) 30 000 kg

B) 12 000 kg

C) 10 000 kg

D) 4 000 kg ✓

Refer to figure. A crew is directed by Operations to tanker fuel at the departure aerodrome due to difficulties with the fuel supply at the destination aerodrome B. Given the data below, what is the optimum quantity of fuel that should be tankered? Fuel price at departure aerodrome: 0.77 $ Fuel price at destination: 0.87 $ Air distance: 1500 NM Planned Take-off mass without tankering: 51 000 kg Cruising level: FL330 Planned cruise speed: M0.74 Maximum TOM: 62 800 kg

A) 6800 kg

B) 11 800 kg

C) 0 kg

D) 2500 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 130 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 50 000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 900 kg

B) 1092 kg

C) 1140 kg ✓

D) 822 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Determine the fuel consumed at FL380 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL380 is 240 NM, the TAT is -44°C and the aeroplane mass is 50 000 kg.

A) 1038 kg

B) 1090 kg

C) 1542 kg

D) 1014 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Consider a flight with a twin-jet-engined aeroplane WITHOUT the Additional Centre Tank (ACT). Determine the maximum total mass of fuel that can be loaded into the Outer and Inner Tanks. For this flight, the fuel density given by the fuel supplier is 0.80 kg/l.

A) 19 513 kg

B) 12 488 kg ✓

C) 12 254 kg

D) 6244 kg

Consider a commercial flight. Given the following information, determine the maximum possible discretionary fuel (formerly called extra fuel) to be uplifted if the captain wants to climb directly to the optimum altitude of 37 000 ft: Mass restriction at 37 000 ft: 68 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass (AZFM): 55 031 kg Regulated Take-off Mass (RTOM): 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 20 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 7931 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 11 249 kg

A) 8751 kg

B) 8251 kg

C) 1960 kg ✓

D) Not able to carry any discretionary fuel

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The estimated landing mass is equal to the maximum landing mass 2. Unable to climb to the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) should an engine fail 3. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome

A) 2 and 3

B) Only 3 ✓

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 3

Given: Fuel volume: 380 US Gallons Fuel density: 0.79 kg/l The fuel mass is…

A) 1141 kg

B) 1119 kg

C) 1136 kg ✓

D) 1124 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL370 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to reduce speed to Mach .779. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 310 NM Aircraft mass: 60 000 kg TAT: -22°C Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 60 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 1196 kg

B) 1544 kg

C) 1611 kg ✓

D) 1590 kg

When calculating the weight of fuel with wing tanks and ACT 1, given a density of 0.79 kg/L, what method should be used?

A) Using an average density for fuel.

B) Ignoring the density information provided.

C) Adding the weights without considering the density.

D) Multiplying the total volume (liters) by the provided density (0.79 kg/L) to obtain the weight. ✓

What is the minimum taxi fuel required for a flight considering 10 minutes of APU usage and 10 minutes of taxi at the departure and arrival airports? APU 120 kg/h 5 kg/ min taxi +5 kg for start-up

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 70 kg

C) 60 kg

D) 55 kg

Given the following information, determine the quantity of barrels of 45 gallons required, considering the actual fuel at the destination for the Commercial flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Assume that the actual fuel consumption is maintained at the same rate. Total distance from A to B: 320 NM Fuel remaining after 1 hour 15 minutes: 859 US gal Distance travelled after 1 hour 15 minutes: 119 NM Average TAS: 115 kt Wind component: 20 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1280 US gal Planned average fuel flow: 380 US gal/h Extra fuel: 0 gal Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A) 5

B) 4 ✓

C) 3

D) 2

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.89, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2650 NM Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 55 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be…

A) 20 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) 12 000 kg ✓

D) 10 000 kg

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome, as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel required when overhead the isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 45 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Normal fuel consumption at cruise: 720 kg per hour

A) 798 kg

B) 777 kg

C) 756 kg ✓

D) 735 kg

How to convert nautical ground miles (NGM) into nautical air miles (NAM)?

A) NGM cannot be converted into NAM.

B) NGM is multiplied by (GS+TAS) and then divided by TAS.

C) NGM is multiplied by GS and then divided by TAS.

D) NGM is multiplied by TAS and then divided by GS. ✓

The captain decided to load an extra 120 kg of fuel before the take-off: Take-off fuel: 910 Kg Trip fuel: 730 Kg Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW): 3230 kg Maximum Landing Weight (MLW): 3500 kg Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW): 4290 kg

A) Proceed to a hold to lose 120 kg to be able to complete the landing.

B) No need to hold, there's no operational impact.

C) The take-off is NOT possible under this condition.

D) Proceed to a hold to lose 30 kg to be able to complete the landing. ✓

Refer to figure or CAP file 4.3.1.a. Using the simplified Flight Planning Charts, given the following information: Trip distance: 300 NM ISA deviation: +10°C Average wind: 75 kt headwind Pressure altitude: 33 000 ft Estimated Landing Weight: 50 000 kg Long Range Cruise Determine the fuel required.

A) 2260 kg

B) 2920 kg

C) 2635 kg ✓

D) 2480 kg

You plan a flight from Athens to Paris and back. Due to refueling problems in Paris, you decide to take fuel for the flight from Paris to Athens on the outbound leg, so that no fueling is necessary in Paris. What do you expect?

A) The fuel consumption will be less from Athens to Paris.

B) The CO2 emission will increase on the outbound leg from Athens to Paris. ✓

C) The take off mass from Paris to Athens increases.

D) The fuel consumption will be less from Paris to Athens.

Given the following information, calculate the change in planned Trip Fuel when applying the updated meteorological conditions. Round up the calculation to the next full kilogram. Trip distance: 200 NAM Planned TAS: 150 kt Change TAS: 1 kt for every 1°C change in OAT Planned average trip fuel consumption: 3 kg/NAM Change of Trip Fuel required: 0.5% increase for every 10°C increase in OAT Revised OAT: 10°C above planned OAT The change in Trip Fuel will be…

A) an increase of 10 kg.

B) a decrease of 27 kg.

C) an increase of 3 kg. ✓

D) a decrease of 29 kg.

Refer to figure. An extract from a typical flight plan produced by an airline flight planning tool. The remaining fuel overhead KOGAS is 5210 kg. Assume that the fuel flow remains the same as experienced between OKEPI and KOGAS and that the actual times between the waypoints are as planned. What is the estimated remaining fuel overhead TOD?

A) 3060 kg

B) 3326 kg

C) 3112 kg

D) 3182 kg ✓

Refer to figure. The annex shows the fuel breakdown for a flight from VOGO (Goa) to EGCC (Manchester). The pilots decide to carry an extra 2300 kg of fuel due to weather at the destination. Using a fuel flow of 4.5 tonnes per hour, how much extra holding time in minutes will this extra fuel give at the destination of EGCC, if required?

A) 27 min

B) 23 min ✓

C) 19 min

D) 15 min

Refer to CAP 697 figure 4.3.6. Given the following information, find the required Alternate Fuel to reach both alternates for an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight of duration 8 hours to a destination for which the operator has nominated two destination alternates ALTN1 and ALTN2. At the destination, meteorological information is available, weather conditions are expected to be above the planning minima within ETA +/- 1 hour, two runways are available and usable, the ceiling will be 1500 ft, and the ground visibility 4 km. Distance to ALTN1: 200 NM Wind to ALTN1: 50 kt HWC Distance to ALTN2: 275 NM Wind to ALTN2: 30 kt TWC Landing Mass at alternates: 55.0 t

A) 2150 kg

B) 2350 kg

C) 2050 kg ✓

D) 1950 kg

The aircraft's tanks have a capacity of 868 kg. The basic mission fuel consumption for an aircraft with the pilot only is 200 kg/h with 400 kg of fuel on board. The pilot has to deliver a parcel of 300 kg. The effect on fuel burn for an increased weight is 10 kg / 100 kg of additional weight. Additionally, due to poor weather expected along the way the pilot decides to take an extra fuel of 45 min. What is the take off fuel required for this flight?

A) 550 kg

B) 560 kg

C) 580 kg

D) 595 kg ✓

How should you calculate the additional fuel required to reach an alternate airport with an elevation of 2000 ft, using an aircraft with a fuel consumption rate of 5000 kg/h?

A) Calculate using expected headwinds or tailwinds ✓

B) Add contingency fuel of 5%

C) Calculate based on standard reserve requirements

D) Calculate based on the extra time needed to climb to 2000 ft

The minimum altitude for the route being flown is 7000 ft. Considering headwinds ranging from 9 to 16 knots, you need to determine the highest ground mileage per gallon of fuel. The true airspeeds (TAS) provided range between 169 and 175 knots, and the fuel flow is constant at 15.5 GPH at all altitudes. Which altitude provides the highest ground mileage per GPH?

A) 9000 ft - TAS: 169 knots, Headwind: 16 knots

B) 8000 ft - TAS: 171 knots, Headwind: 12 knots

C) 7000 ft - TAS: 173 knots, Headwind: 10 knots

D) 6000 ft - TAS: 175 knots, Headwind: 9 knots ✓

Calculate the contingency fuel required for the flight, rounded to the nearest 10 kg. Trip fuel: 2300 kg Holding fuel flow above destination: 2000 kg/hr Holding fuel flow above alternate: 1800 kg/hr

A) 70 kg

B) 150 kg

C) 170 kg ✓

D) 115 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination aerodrome: 6 minutes Climb to cruising altitude: 8 minutes Cruise distance: 350 NM Cruise TAS: 265 kt Headwind: 15 kt Descent to the alternate aerodrome: 10 minutes Approach and Landing at the alternate aerodrome: 5 minutes

A) 108 min

B) 113 min ✓

C) 107 min

D) 99 min

A commercial operator is planning to operate a medium range jet transport aeroplane to destination 1, but with destination 2 available as a suitable aerodrome for a fuel stop as per the reduced contingency fuel regulations. There is also a suitable ERA aerodrome available for the flight to destination 2. Given the following information, calculate the minimum take-off fuel required. Average fuel flow: 3010 kg/hr Flight time from departure to decision point: 4 hr 29 min Flight Time from decision point to destination 1: 1 hr 46 min Alternate fuel: 1455 kg Flight Time from decision point to destination 2: 0 hr 46 min Alternate fuel: 1906 kg Final reserve: 1360 kg

A) 21 375 kg

B) 22 277 kg

C) 21 894 kg ✓

D) 19 285 kg

Refer to figure. What is the total fuel capacity for an aeroplane fitted with the tanks listed below? Left Wing Tank Right Wing Tank Centre Tank 1 Additional Centre Tank

A) 21 228 kg ✓

B) 23 577 kg

C) 19 285 kg

D) 22 277 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the block fuel required for a 1 hours and 50 min cruise time VFR flight with a class B multi-engined piston aircraft? The departure aerodrome will be used as the destination alternate. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel: 8 L Cruise fuel consumption: 58 L/h Holding fuel Consumption: 50 L/h Departure and Climb fuel: 30 L Go Around and Climb fuel: 30 L Approach and Landing fuel: 14 L

A) 324 L

B) 340 L

C) 245.8 L

D) 354 L ✓

A Commercial Air Transport Piston Engine aircraft is performing a VFR flight. Given the following information what is the minimum take-off fuel? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Flight time: 2 hours Fuel Flow: 30 USG/h Taxi Fuel: 2 USG No Destination Alternate

A) 63 USG

B) 93 USG ✓

C) 95 USG

D) 90 USG

The fuel flow of a turbine engine is 190 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75 and any other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow will be…

A) 200 kg/h

B) 267 kg/h

C) 213 kg/h

D) 190 kg/h ✓

Extra fuel is carried to account for foreseen situations that may require more fuel than originally planned. Which of the following scenarios justifies the addition of extra fuel?

A) Unexpected air traffic delays at the alternate airport

B) Expected higher fuel consumption due to a known MEL item ✓

C) Unanticipated runway closure at the destination

D) Unforeseen weather phenomena en route

Given a scenario with specified holding and cruise fuel flow rates, how can you calculate the minimum legal fuel required and estimate the block fuel for the flight?

A) Combine holding and cruise fuel flows for minimum legal fuel; estimate block fuel based on current weather conditions and expected flight duration ✓

B) Determine minimum legal fuel based on cruise fuel flow only; estimate block fuel using average fuel consumption rates

C) Calculate minimum legal fuel based on holding fuel flow only; estimate block fuel based on aircraft manufacturer's recommendations

D) Sum the holding and cruise fuel flows for minimum legal fuel; estimate block fuel based on previous flights

What is the additional fuel requirement based on the Off-Block Fuel (OBF) and the Critical Fuel Scenarios (CFS) for two alternate airports?

A) Lowest CFS value

B) Highest CFS value

C) Smallest difference between CFS and OBF ✓

D) Biggest difference between CFS and OBF

How much additional fuel should be carried based on the following critical points along your flight? ETP1: FOB: 8100 kg, CFS: 8260 kg ETP2: FOB: 6250 kg, CFS: 6360 kg

A) 6360 kg

B) 8260 kg

C) 110 kg

D) 160 kg ✓

Given the following information, what is the maximum amount of Extra Fuel that can be uploaded for this Commercial Air Transport flight? MTOM: 2150 lb MLM: 2030 lb ZFM: 1803 lb Planned T/O Fuel: 35 US gal Trip Fuel: 27 US gal Fuel Tank Capacity: 68 US gal Specific Gravity: 0.72

A) 33 US gal

B) 41 US gal

C) 29 US gal

D) 22 US gal ✓

If the landing gear is retracted and the landing gear doors stay open the fuel burn is an extra 15%. How does this affect the FMC?

A) The FMS remains reliable and the contingency fuel covers the increased fuel consumption.

B) The FMC reduces thrust on the engines to compensate for the increased fuel consumption.

C) The FMS remains reliable because it recalculates fuel consumption and compensates the increased fuel flow.

D) The FMC is unable to adjust for the increase in fuel burn so fuel calculation is not precise. ✓

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engine jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to descend to FL360 and change your speed to Mach 0.727. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 220 NM Aircraft mass: 50 000 kg TAT: -42°C Average wind component: 45 kt tailwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 50 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 967 kg

B) 892 kg

C) 865 kg ✓

D) 837 kg

Determine the minimum planning fuel required for departure, for the following planned flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 2862 lb Contingency Fuel: 143 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 494 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 430 lb Taxi Fuel: 100 lb Extra Fuel: 300 lb Tankering Fuel: 971 lb A destination alternate is required.

A) 5200 lb

B) 4329 lb ✓

C) 4029 lb

D) 3929 lb

Based on the following information: Price ratio: 0.898 Air distance: 2650 NAM Maximum Takeoff Mass (MTOM): 208 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 184 500 kg Planned Takeoff Fuel: 30 000 kg Trip Fuel: 23 000 kg What is the planned Take-off Mass (TOM), and does it comply with MTOM and MLM limits?

A) Planned TOM: 198 500 kg; complies with both MTOM and MLM.

B) Planned TOM: 210 000 kg; exceeds both MTOM and MLM.

C) Planned TOM: 203 000 kg; complies with both MTOM and MLM. ✓

D) Planned TOM: 208 000 kg; complies with MTOM but exceeds MLM.

Refer to figure or CAP file 4.3.1.a. Using the simplified Flight Planning Charts, given the following information: Trip distance: 300 NM ISA deviation: +10ºC Average wind: 75 kt headwind Pressure altitude: 29 000 ft Estimated Landing Weight: 40 000 kg Long Range Cruise Determine the fuel required.

A) 2480 kg ✓

B) 2580 kg

C) 2000 kg

D) 1700 kg

A piston-engined aeroplane on an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight arrives at its destination with the minimum fuel on board. During the approach procedure, the aircraft is forced to divert from the missed approach point to the alternate. Given the following information: Trip Fuel: 235 litres Alternate Fuel: 38 litres Fuel for go around and one approach: 22 litres Fuel flow at cruise speed: 80 l/h Fuel flow at holding speed: 60 l/h The minimum fuel required at the destination is (1) _ and the minimum fuel required at the alternate is (2) _.

A) (1) 95 litres; (2) 57 litres

B) (1) 98 litres; (2) 60 litres

C) (1) 100 litres; (2) 40 litres

D) (1) 83 litres; (2) 45 litres ✓

Given the following information, calculate the estimated estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Remaining useable fuel: 2100 lb DOM: 9900 lb Traffic Load: 3160 lb Remaining Trip Fuel to Destination: 800 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 485 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 420 lb Extra fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 13 860 lb

B) 15 265 lb

C) 13 940 lb

D) 14 360 lb ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Jet aircraft aeroplane, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 3740 kg Fuel to alternate: 936 kg Taxi Fuel: 140 kg Fuel flow at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome: 2132 kg/h Fuel flow at 1500 ft above destination alternate: 2400 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 6200 kg ✓

B) 4816 kg

C) 6948 kg

D) 6069 kg

Refer to figure. The figure depicts a fuel plan as created by a flight planning tool for a return flight LFPG-EIDW-LFPG. During the pre-flight preparations, the Operations Department calls the pilot and advises him/her to refuel at LFPG, due to some fuel-supply issues at EIDW. In order to reduce the environmental impact, the pilot will consider the least possible fuel tankering. What is the MINIMUM amount of fuel tankering to ensure the target fuel for EIDW-LFPG remains on board after landing at EIDW?

A) 3495 kg

B) 7526 kg

C) 4432 kg

D) 5506 kg ✓

Refer to figure. An extract from a typical flight plan produced by an airline flight planning tool. Assume that the fuel flow remains the same as experienced between OKEPI and OKIRA and that the actual times between the waypoints are as planned. What is the estimated remaining fuel overhead MOKIP?

A) 5550 kg ✓

B) 5319 kg

C) 5499 kg

D) 5540 kg

Refer to figure. You are planning a trip from London, Heathrow to St John's, Newfoundland and return. Operations have informed you that the fuel at St John's is much more expensive and want to know how much extra fuel you can tanker. Given the following information, what quantity of extra fuel is the aircraft able to carry? Assume a departure / destination fuel price ratio of 0.915. Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2000 NM MTOM: 205 000 kg MLM: 175 000 kg Planned TOM: 185 000 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 40 000 kg Planned T/O Fuel: 30 000 kg Planned Trip Fuel: 18 000 kg

A) 10 000 kg

B) 20 000 kg

C) 8 000 kg ✓

D) 24 000 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport operation, calculate the maximum possible Extra Fuel to be uplifted, if the Commander wants to climb directly to the optimum altitude of 37 000 ft. Maximum Take-off Mass (MTOM) to climb at FL370: 68 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass (AZFM): 59 031 kg Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM): 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 16 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 4 761 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 8 000 kg

A) 8000

B) 1209 ✓

C) 9209

D) 4330

An aircraft is flying a route from position A to B, a distance of 57 Nautical Ground Miles (NGM). Given the following information: True Airspeed (TAS): 125 kt Forecast wind: 240°/30 kt Course: 205° (M) Variation: 15° W What is the distance covered in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) ?

A) 74.2 NAM

B) 68.5 NAM ✓

C) 66.0 NAM

D) 72.0 NAM

Refer to figure or CAP file 2.4. Given the following information, calculate the Ground range. Aeroplane Mass at start-up: 3663 lb Aviation gasoline fuel load (density 6 lb/gal): 74 US gal Take-off altitude: Sea Level Headwind component: 30 kt Cruising altitude: 8000 ft Power setting: Full throttle 2300 RPM 20° lean of peak EGT

A) 798 NM

B) 656 NM

C) 686 NM ✓

D) 844 NM

Refer to figure. For Mass and Balance and Aerodynamic purposes, a pilot decides to refuell only the inner and outer wing tanks on both sides, while the centre tank remains empty. How much fuel is available ?

A) 18 728 kg

B) 10 870 kg

C) 12 252 kg ✓

D) 15 608 kg

Your fuel flow is 17 US gallons/ hour and your fuel quantity is 45 imperial gallons, what is your endurance?

A) 3 h 20 min

B) 3 h 06 min

C) 3 h 11 min ✓

D) 4 h

During the pre-flight briefing process, the Pilot-in-Command of a Commercial Air Transport flight notices that a thunderstorm activity is predicted along the planned route, which may cause deviations of more than 50 NM from the route. To determine the minimum ramp fuel, what should the Pilot-in-Command do, provided that the above deviation will increase the distance to be flown?

A) The Pilot-in-Command should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Trip Fuel.

B) The Pilot-in-Command should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Trip Fuel.

C) The Pilot-in-Command should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Reserve Fuel.

D) The Pilot-in-Command should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Discretionary Fuel. ✓

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 5 min Climb to cruise level: 5 min Cruise distance: 65 NM Cruise TAS: 145 kt Wind component: +18 kt Anticipated hold at the alternate: 20 min Descent to the alternate: 4 min Approach to the alternate: 5 min

A) 58 min

B) 70 min

C) 43 min

D) 63 min ✓

Due to significant weather conditions in the vicinity of the destination aerodrome, the pilot of a Commercial Air Transport flight has to plan for two destination alternate aerodromes. Given the following information, what is the Alternate Fuel required? Average cruise fuel flow: 46 kg/min Fuel for missed approach: 400 kg Flight time from missed approach altitude to destination first alternate: 54 min. Flight time from missed approach altitude to destination second alternate: 44 min.

A) 2 424 kg

B) 3 804 kg

C) 2 884 kg ✓

D) 4 264 kg

Refer to figure. A Medium-Range Jet Aircraft is planned to perform a Commercial Air Transport flight to Sal International Airport, Cabo Verde (GVAC). For operational purposes, the Tenerife South International Airport (GCTS) is the nominated destination alternate, but for facilitation reasons, the commercial flight must follow the isolated aerodrome procedure requirements. Using the data below and the figures in the annex, calculate the required Additional Fuel (ADDFU) for the destination and destination alternate. Average trip fuel flow: 2849 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h

A) 1424 kg, 5698 kg

B) 5698 kg, 1400 kg

C) 5698 kg, 1200 kg ✓

D) 2400 kg, 5698 kg

The pilot of a helicopter during the cruise phase is instructed by the ATC to adjust his/her routing, in order to avoid an airspace ahead, because of military activities, increasing the distance to be flown. The required fuel amount due to the increased flown distance is included in the...

A) Trip Fuel.

B) Contingency Fuel. ✓

C) Destination Alternate Fuel.

D) Final Reserve Fuel.

Given the following information, calculate the revised estimated Landing Mass at the destination for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. DOM: 4515 kg Traffic Load: 2540 kg Remaining Usable Fuel: 960 kg Remaining Trip Fuel to the destination: 350 kg Alternate Fuel: 240 kg Final Reserve: 250 kg Extra fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 7415 kg

B) 8155 kg

C) 7405 kg

D) 7665 kg ✓

A pilot of a Commercial Air Transport operations company is planning to conduct an IFR flight from Departure aerodrome A, where a VOR approach can be only conducted with visibility below the landing minima, to a Destination aerodrome B above the planning minima but in IMC. Which considerations must be taken into account by the pilot during the pre-flight planning procedure, so as to determine the minimum fuel required, regarding that the above forecast conditions at both aerodromes are expected to remain the same?

A) NO destination alternate aerodrome is required as the weather at the destination aerodrome is forecast to remain above the planning minima, avoiding the need for Alternate Fuel.

B) The pilot must select two destination alternate aerodromes and carry sufficient Alternate Fuel to reach both aerodromes following an approach at the destination.

D) The pilot must select a take-off alternate aerodrome, which could be the destination aerodrome if operational minima permit, avoiding the need for Additional Fuel. ✓

A pilot is planning a flight from aerodrome M to aerodrome N and, so as to increase the traffic load, uses the Reduced Contingency Fuel procedure for his/her fuel calculations, selecting a decision point (DP) and an aerodrome R as optional refuel station. Given the information below, calculate the minimum fuel required from aerodrome M to N. Taxi Fuel at aerodrome M: 180 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 300 kg Trip fuel from M to N via DP: 8 500 kg Trip fuel from M to R: 7 800 kg Trip Fuel from DP to N : 3 500 kg Do NOT take into account Alternate and Extra Fuel. An ERA for the optional refuel station is NOT available.

A) 10 405 kg

B) 10 155 kg ✓

C) 10 235 kg

D) 9 670 kg

Which statement is correct regarding the policy on the Additional Fuel, according to the EU-OPS Regulations for Commercial Air Transport flights?

A) Fuel that is added at the discretion of the Commander.

B) An operation using the Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure: fuel to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

C) An operation WITH a destination aerodrome: fuel to hold for up to 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

D) An operation WITHOUT a destination alternate aerodrome: fuel to hold for 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions. ✓

The maximum fuel capacity of an aircraft is 1200 lb, and the pilot has to order fuel to fill up en route to the final destination. The pilot estimates landing at the fuelling point with 350 lb on board. How many 40 Imperial gallon fuel drums must be ordered if the fuel supplier states a specific gravity of 0.78?

A) 142

B) 3 ✓

C) 5

D) 4

Given the following information, select the correct statement regarding the Alternate Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight for which an En-Route Alternate (ERA) aerodrome is considered. ERA for 3 % Contingency fuel: LFPR Destination aerodrome: DESA Destination alternate aerodrome: ALTB

A) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from DESA to LFPR or from DESA to ALTB, whichever requires the greater amount of fuel.

B) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from LFPR to DESA in the event of an en-route diversion to LFPR and then sufficient to fly from DESA to ALTB.

C) The fuel for a diversion to LFPR is included in the Trip Fuel. Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from DESA to ALTB. ✓

D) Alternate Fuel must be sufficient to fly from a point en-route to LFPR and then from DESA to ALTB, so it includes the flight time to all alternate aerodromes.

The calculated fuel for a flight is 2 500 kg. However, due to expected delays during flight, the commander decides to order an additional 100 kg of fuel. Due to miscommunication, the refueling team provides only 2 500 kg. In such situation, the refueling team shoud:

A) NOT be informed because 2 500 kg of fuel is enough for the planned route.

B) Be informed and the fuel added as long as it does not delay the departure.

C) Be informed because those 100 kg are part of the necessary fuel for the flight. ✓

D) NOT be informed because Contingency fuel covers those 100 kg of Extra Fuel.

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 6 min Climb to cruise level: 8 min Cruise distance: 55 NM Cruise TAS: 165 kt Headwind: 10 kt Expected holding at the alternate: 10 min Descent to the alternate: 6 min Approach to the alternate: 6 min

A) 51 min

B) 47 min

C) 57 min ✓

D) 55 min

Refer to figure. Given the information in the Flight Log excerpt, calculate the actual fuel consumption rate from BRAVO to DELTA, provided that the flight conditions on the flight legs from BRAVO to CHARLIE and the fuel consumption remain unchanged.

A) 949 lb/h

B) 780 lb/h ✓

C) 325 lb/h

D) 1118 lb/h

After an engine failure, the Commander of a Medium-Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane executes a drift-down procedure and stabilizes at a cruising altitude significantly below the normal cruising altitude. His/her decision to proceed to an adequate alternate, increases significantly the fuel consumption compared to the planned consumption. Although he/she has planned for Trip Fuel, Contingency Fuel, Alternate Fuel and Final Reserve Fuel, he/she has NOT included in the fuel planning a sufficient quantity for this engine-out situation. Which option is correct for the above scenario?

A) The Alternate Fuel must plan for such an event, and the fuel planning must therefore be INCORRECT.

B) Fuel for this event must be included in the Contingency Fuel; the fuel planning is therefore INCORRECT.

C) The Final Reserve Fuel must plan for such an event, and the fuel planning must therefore be INCORRECT.

D) The Additional Fuel ensures that sufficient fuel is carried for such an event. ✓

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the minimum Take-off Fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight in an MRJT aeroplane, given the following information? The operator has nominated a suitable En-Route Alternate aerodrome according to the basic fuel scheme with variations. Estimated flight time: 03:57 Estimated flight time to alternate: 00:20 Average fuel flow: 2856 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 2600 kg/h Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 13 871 kg ✓

B) 14 097 kg

C) 13 533 kg

D) 12 754 kg

An aircraft planning to fly a total distance of 450 NM, after flying for 1 hour 20 minutes it covers 160 NM and its actual fuel remaining is 890 I. Given the following information and assuming that the actual fuel consumption remains at the same rate, what will be the actual fuel remaining at destination? Average TAS: 145 kt Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1 350 l Planned average fuel flow: 360 l/h

A) 20 l

B) 55 l ✓

C) 589 l

D) 460 l

An aircraft is flying a route from position A to B, a distance of 57 Nautical Ground Miles (NGM). Given the following information: True Airspeed (TAS): 145 kt Forecast wind: 240°/30 kt Course: 205°(M) Variation: 15°W What is the distance covered in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) ?

A) 57 NAMs

B) 66 NAMs ✓

C) 69 NAMs

D) 71 NAMs

Given the following information, the pilot finally decides to fly with TAS 140 kt, because of a stronger headwind more than the forecast. What will be the difference in the fuel consumption between the planned and the actual conditions? Distance A-B: 240 NGM Planned TAS: 130 kt Planned headwind (HWC): 10 kt Actual headwind (HWC): 25 kt Fuel flow with TAS 130 kt: 36 kg/hr Fuel flow with TAS 140 kt: 42 kg/hr

A) 6 kg

B) 21 kg

C) 16 kg ✓

D) 72 kg

A flight from aerodrome H to aerodrome G is planned using the Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure aiming to increase the traffic load. The decision point along the route is DP and aerodrome R is the optional refuelling destination. Given the following data, calculate the minimum fuel required for from H to G. Taxi fuel at aerodrome H: 160 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 200 kg Trip fuel from H to G via DP: 7 800 kg Trip fuel from H to R via DP: 7 250 kg Trip fuel from DP to G: 3 050 kg Alternate fuel and Extra Fuel is NOT required and an En-Route Alternate aerodrome (ERA) for the optional refuel station is NOT available.

A) 8 828 kg

B) 9 550 kg

C) 9 313 kg ✓

D) 8 973 kg

A Commercial Air Transport flight of 3 hours total flight time is planned to an aerodrome where no alternate is required. 1.5 hours after take-off, the pilot is informed that there will be a delay due to traffic on arriving at destination, thus he/she has to use 8 minutes out of the 15 minutes additional fuel. What action should be done in this case?

A) Declare an emergency when arriving at destination and ask for a priority clearance.

B) Proceed to an in-flight re-planning at a destination alternate.

C) Check the weather and if within minima proceed to the destination.

D) Proceed to the destination given that the aircraft can land with final reserve fuel intact. ✓

A Commercial Air Transport operation is to be pre-positioned to a remote operating location in mountainous terrain. The commander wishes to take as much extra fuel as possible. Given the following information, determine the maximum amount of Extra Fuel (including the fuel penalty) that the Commander can upload: MTOM: 6250 lb MLM: 4500 lb ZFM: 3825 lb Planned T/O fuel: 705 lb Trip fuel: 375 lb Fuel tank capacity: 1100 lb Fuel burn correction per 100 lb of extra fuel based upon: TOM +9.1 lb and LM +10 lb

A) 0 lb

B) 395 lb

C) 379 lb ✓

D) 345 lb

Given the following information, calculate the actual fuel at the destination for the Commercial flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Assume that the actual fuel consumption is maintained at the same rate. Total distance from A to B: 320 NM Fuel remaining after 1 hour 15 minutes: 859 US gal Distance travelled after 1 hour 15 minutes: 119 NM Average TAS: 115 kt Wind component: 20 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1280 US gal Planned average fuel flow: 380 US gal/h Extra fuel: 0 gal Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A) 421 US gal

B) 146 US gal ✓

C) 62 US gal

D) 55 US gal

A crew finds that the actual headwind is stronger than the forecast wind, and so flies at 140 kt TAS instead of the planned 130 kt TAS to minimise the delay to arrival. Determine the increase in fuel use for the flight leg, given: Fuel flow at 130 kt TAS: 162 kg/h Fuel flow at 140 kt TAS: 188 kg/h Forecast headwind component: 10 kt Actual headwind component: 25 kt Leg distance: 166 NM

A) 47 kg ✓

B) 25 kg

C) 15 kg

D) 11 kg

Determine the remaining endurance of the aircraft (ignoring any reserve fuel), given: An aircraft is on a taxi flight, and the fuel gauge is showing 41% of fuel left in the tank. Total Fuel capacity 514 l Fuel consumption 190 l/h

A) 2 h 43 min

B) 2 h 13 min

C) 1 h 11 min

D) 1 h 07 min ✓

Refer to figure. In the figure, all fuel figures are in kg. For this flight, how does the fuel consumption from top of climb to TORDU compare to the planned fuel consumption? The actual fuel consumption is...

A) 3 kg/h higher than planned.

B) 8 kg/h higher than planned.

C) The same as planned.

D) 5 kg/h higher than planned. ✓

Determine the fuel mass, given: Volume of the fuel: 590 US GAL Specific gravity: 0.72

A) 975 lb

B) 3 544 lb ✓

C) 4 921 lb

D) 3 691 lb

The following information is taken from the operational flight plan of a Medium Range Jet Transport (MRJT) Aeroplane. Calculate the minimum required fuel for take-off if the operator has nominated a suitable En-Route Alternate: Flight time: 03:15 Flight time from destination to alternate: 00:25 Cruise fuel flow: 2490 kg/h Holding fuel flow: 1950 kg/h

A) 11 320 kg

B) 10 348 kg ✓

C) 10 510 kg

D) 9 373 kg

Refer to figure or CAP697 Figure 4.4. Determine the final reserve fuel and corresponding time for a twin jet aircraft under performance class A performing a Commercial Air Transport flight, given the following information: Arrival mass at alternate: 50 000 kg Arrival mass at destination: 52 550 kg Alternate elevation: MSL Destination elevation: 1500 ft

A) 1180 kg, 30 minutes ✓

B) 2360 kg, 1 hour

C) 1865 kg, 45 minutes

D) 1180 kg, 15 minutes

Refer to figure. A twin-engine jet aeroplane cruises at FL370. Given the following information, what is the fuel required for the remainder of the cruise time? Mass: 52 500 kg Cruise Altitude: FL370 Distance to Top-of-Descent: 150 NM TAT: -42°C Wind: 25 kt head Consider a constant aircraft mass of 52 500 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 665 kg

B) 690 kg

C) 707 kg ✓

D) 714 kg

Which of the following statements is correct with regards to fuel tankering? 1. Fuel tankering should be considered when the fuel price at the destination aerodrome is higher than at the departure aerodrome. 2. Fuel tankering is considered suitable in case weather conditions at the destination aerodrome are below minima.

A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct ✓

D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Using the information given below, calculate the minimum required fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight in accordance with Reduced Contingency Fuel procedure. An en-route alternate is available for the optional refuel destination and no destination alternate requirements exist for both destination aerodromes. Taxi Fuel: 220 kg Trip Fuel to Decision Point: 7 770 kg Trip Fuel from Decision Point to commercial destination: 2 220 kg Trip Fuel from Decision Point to optional refuel destination: 2 440 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1 100 kg Additional Fuel: not required Extra Fuel: not required Discretionary Fuel: not required

A) 12 387 kg

B) 11 837 kg ✓

C) 12 120 kg

D) 11 421 kg

Refer to figure. Using the graph above and the following information, determine the Nautical Air Miles (NAM). TAS = 350 kt Headwind Component = 40 kt Ground Distance = 440 NM

A) 497 NAM ✓

B) 389 NAM

C) 395 NAM

D) 480 NAM

Given the following information, what is the minimum block fuel required for the Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane using the Basic Fuel Scheme WITH variations for Reduced Contingency Fuel? Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Trip Fuel A to DP: 12 000 kg Trip Fuel DP to Destination: 9000 kg Trip Fuel DP to optional refuelling destination: 3000 kg Destination Alternate Fuel (for both possible destinations): 2000 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 1350 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 21 650 kg

B) 23 750 kg

C) 25 100 kg ✓

D) 19 400 kg

Refer to figure. For pre-flight planning purposes, calculate the total fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane, given the following information. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. The weather at the destination aerodrome is forecast to be below the applicable minima, but two alternates with suitable weather have been chosen. The flight's payload means that minimum block fuel will be taken. Taxi Fuel: 230 kg Trip distance: 250 NGM Average Wind Component: 50 kt headwind Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h Expected Landing Mass: 65000 kg Destination Alternate 1 Fuel: 1230 kg Destination Alternate 2 Fuel: 1950 kg Additional Fuel: 0 kg Extra Fuel: 0 kg Discretionary Fuel: 0 kg

A) 5805 kg ✓

B) 5075 kg

C) 4710 kg

D) 5550 kg

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The fuel price at the departure aerodrome is higher than that at the destination. 2. The fuel price ratio, departure to destination, is greater than 1. 3. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome.

A) 2 and 3.

B) 1 and 2.

C) Only 2.

D) Only 3. ✓

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to reduce speed to Mach .786. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 310 NM Aircraft mass: 60 000 kg TAT: -22°C Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 60 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 1 196 kg

B) 837 kg

C) 1 544 kg

D) 1 590 kg ✓

The maximum fuel capacity of an aircraft is 1 400 lb, and the pilot has to order fuel to fill up en route to the final destination. The pilot estimates landing at the fuelling point with 350 lb on board. How many 40 Imperial gallon fuel drums must be ordered if the fuel supplier states a specific gravity of 0.78?

A) 6

B) 5

C) 4 ✓

D) 3

An aircraft planning to fly a total distance of 460 NM, after flying for 1 hour 09 minutes it covers 178 NM and its actual fuel remaining is 1019 I. Given the following information and assuming that the actual fuel consumption remains at the same rate, what will be the actual fuel remaining at destination? Average TAS: 145 kt Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1 350 l Planned average fuel flow: 360 l/h

A) 95 l

B) 342 l

C) 56 l

D) 495 l ✓

At the last minute, 15 passengers were unable to board an aircraft, resulting in a weight reduction of 1500 kg. The operational flight plan shows that a weight reduction of 1000 kg will apply a 205 kg reduction to the aircraft's trip fuel. Calculate the new trip fuel required for the flight. (Use interpolation)

A) 205 kg more than the original trip fuel requirement.

B) The same as the original trip fuel requirement.

C) 308 kg less than the original trip fuel requirement. ✓

D) 205 kg less than the original trip fuel requirement.

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is planning to depart for an isolated destination Aerodrome as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel required (to the nearest 10 kg), when overhead the isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 30 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Alternate fuel: to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level Normal fuel consumption cruise: 720 kg per hour

A) 540 kg

B) 740 kg

C) 820 kg

D) 760 kg ✓

Given the following information, what Taxi Fuel is required for a Commercial Air Transport flight? Planned APU usage: 10 minutes Planned taxi time: 10 minutes Taxi fuel: 5 kg/min APU fuel flow: 120 kg/h Engine startup: 5 kg

A) 50 kg

B) 65 kg

C) 75 kg ✓

D) 70 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. However, due to turbulence, you descend from FL380 to FL360. Determine the fuel consumed at FL360 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL360 is 295 NM, the TAT is -17ºC and the aeroplane mass is 65 000 kg.

A) 1 670 kg

B) 1 530 kg

C) 1 702 kg

D) 1 542 kg ✓

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel required?

A) Take-off, climb (including step climb), alternate, decent, approach, landing and taxi.

B) Take-off, climb (including step climb), discretionary, descent, approach and landing.

C) Take-off, climb (including step climb), contingency, descent, approach and landing.

D) Take-off, climb (including step climb), descent, approach and landing. ✓

Determine the fuel mass in lbs, given: Fuel volume: 465 litres Specific gravity: 0.72

A) 335 lb

B) 646 lb

C) 738 lb ✓

D) 1 424 lb

During the dispatch planning of a Commercial Air Transport flight towards a busy aerodrome, the Commander observes that single runway operations will be underway upon arrival. To prepare for possible delays, the decision is made to include an extra 15 minutes of endurance fuel. This additional fuel should be incorporated as part of the:

A) Trip fuel.

B) Extra fuel. ✓

C) Additional fuel.

D) Contingency fuel.

Determine the minimum planning fuel required for departure, for the following planned flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane: Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 2 862 lb Contingency Fuel: 143 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 494 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 430 lb Taxi Fuel: 100 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Tankering Fuel: 971 lb A destination alternate is required.

A) 5 200 lb

B) 5 000 lb

C) 4 029 lb ✓

D) 3 929 lb

Refer to figure. Due to operational requirements, fuel must be tankered on departure from the aerodrome. Given a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.93 and the provided data, determine the optimum amount of fuel that can be tankered: Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2 000 NM Planned Take-Off Mass: 180 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a Trip Fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum Landing Mass: 170 000 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass: 210 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg

A) 30 000 kg

B) 12 000 kg

C) 10 000 kg

D) 4 000 kg ✓

Refer to figure. A crew is directed by Operations to tanker fuel at the departure aerodrome due to difficulties with the fuel supply at the destination aerodrome B. Given the data below, what is the optimum quantity of fuel that should be tankered? Fuel price at departure aerodrome: 0.77 $ Fuel price at destination: 0.87 $ Air distance: 1500 NM Planned Take-off mass without tankering: 51 000 kg Cruising level: FL330 Planned cruise speed: M0.74 Maximum TOM: 62 800 kg

A) 6800 kg

B) 11 800 kg

C) 0 kg

D) 2500 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 130 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 50 000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 900 kg

B) 1092 kg

C) 1140 kg ✓

D) 822 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Determine the fuel consumed at FL380 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL380 is 240 NM, the TAT is -44°C and the aeroplane mass is 50 000 kg.

A) 1038 kg

B) 1090 kg

C) 1542 kg

D) 1014 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Consider a flight with a twin-jet-engined aeroplane WITHOUT the Additional Centre Tank (ACT). Determine the maximum total mass of fuel that can be loaded into the Outer and Inner Tanks. For this flight, the fuel density given by the fuel supplier is 0.80 kg/l.

A) 19 513 kg

B) 12 488 kg ✓

C) 12 254 kg

D) 6244 kg

Consider a commercial flight. Given the following information, determine the maximum possible discretionary fuel (formerly called extra fuel) to be uplifted if the captain wants to climb directly to the optimum altitude of 37 000 ft: Mass restriction at 37 000 ft: 68 000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 62 731 kg Actual Zero Fuel Mass (AZFM): 55 031 kg Regulated Take-off Mass (RTOM): 76 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 66 360 kg Fuel Tank Capacity: 20 000 kg Taxi Fuel: 240 kg Trip Fuel: 7931 kg Minimum Block Fuel: 11 249 kg

A) 8751 kg

B) 8251 kg

C) 1960 kg ✓

D) Not able to carry any discretionary fuel

Which of the following circumstances would be considered suitable for fuel tankering? 1. The estimated landing mass is equal to the maximum landing mass 2. Unable to climb to the Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) should an engine fail 3. There is no fuel available at the destination aerodrome

A) 2 and 3

B) Only 3 ✓

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 3

Given: Fuel volume: 380 US Gallons Fuel density: 0.79 kg/l The fuel mass is…

A) 1141 kg

B) 1119 kg

C) 1136 kg ✓

D) 1124 kg

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL370 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to reduce speed to Mach .779. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 310 NM Aircraft mass: 60 000 kg TAT: -22°C Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 60 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 1196 kg

B) 1544 kg

C) 1611 kg ✓

D) 1590 kg

When calculating the weight of fuel with wing tanks and ACT 1, given a density of 0.79 kg/L, what method should be used?

A) Using an average density for fuel.

B) Ignoring the density information provided.

C) Adding the weights without considering the density.

D) Multiplying the total volume (liters) by the provided density (0.79 kg/L) to obtain the weight. ✓

What is the minimum taxi fuel required for a flight considering 10 minutes of APU usage and 10 minutes of taxi at the departure and arrival airports? APU 120 kg/h 5 kg/ min taxi +5 kg for start-up

A) 75 kg ✓

B) 70 kg

C) 60 kg

D) 55 kg

Given the following information, determine the quantity of barrels of 45 gallons required, considering the actual fuel at the destination for the Commercial flight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Assume that the actual fuel consumption is maintained at the same rate. Total distance from A to B: 320 NM Fuel remaining after 1 hour 15 minutes: 859 US gal Distance travelled after 1 hour 15 minutes: 119 NM Average TAS: 115 kt Wind component: 20 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1280 US gal Planned average fuel flow: 380 US gal/h Extra fuel: 0 gal Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A) 5

B) 4 ✓

C) 3

D) 2

Refer to figures. Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.89, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: Cruise flight level: FL350 Air distance to be covered: 2650 NM Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg Maximum tank capacity: 55 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be…

A) 20 000 kg

B) 15 000 kg

C) 12 000 kg ✓

D) 10 000 kg

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is planning to depart for an isolated destination aerodrome, as a Commercial Air Transport operation. Calculate the minimum amount of fuel required when overhead the isolated aerodrome, considering the following details. Flight time: 2 hours and 45 minutes Top of climb to top of descent time: 2 hours Normal fuel consumption at cruise: 720 kg per hour

A) 798 kg

B) 777 kg

C) 756 kg ✓

D) 735 kg

How to convert nautical ground miles (NGM) into nautical air miles (NAM)?

A) NGM cannot be converted into NAM.

B) NGM is multiplied by (GS+TAS) and then divided by TAS.

C) NGM is multiplied by GS and then divided by TAS.

D) NGM is multiplied by TAS and then divided by GS. ✓

The captain decided to load an extra 120 kg of fuel before the take-off: Take-off fuel: 910 Kg Trip fuel: 730 Kg Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW): 3230 kg Maximum Landing Weight (MLW): 3500 kg Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW): 4290 kg

A) Proceed to a hold to lose 120 kg to be able to complete the landing.

B) No need to hold, there's no operational impact.

C) The take-off is NOT possible under this condition.

D) Proceed to a hold to lose 30 kg to be able to complete the landing. ✓

Refer to figure or CAP file 4.3.1.a. Using the simplified Flight Planning Charts, given the following information: Trip distance: 300 NM ISA deviation: +10°C Average wind: 75 kt headwind Pressure altitude: 33 000 ft Estimated Landing Weight: 50 000 kg Long Range Cruise Determine the fuel required.

A) 2260 kg

B) 2920 kg

C) 2635 kg ✓

D) 2480 kg

You plan a flight from Athens to Paris and back. Due to refueling problems in Paris, you decide to take fuel for the flight from Paris to Athens on the outbound leg, so that no fueling is necessary in Paris. What do you expect?

A) The fuel consumption will be less from Athens to Paris.

B) The CO2 emission will increase on the outbound leg from Athens to Paris. ✓

C) The take off mass from Paris to Athens increases.

D) The fuel consumption will be less from Paris to Athens.

Given the following information, calculate the change in planned Trip Fuel when applying the updated meteorological conditions. Round up the calculation to the next full kilogram. Trip distance: 200 NAM Planned TAS: 150 kt Change TAS: 1 kt for every 1°C change in OAT Planned average trip fuel consumption: 3 kg/NAM Change of Trip Fuel required: 0.5% increase for every 10°C increase in OAT Revised OAT: 10°C above planned OAT The change in Trip Fuel will be…

A) an increase of 10 kg.

B) a decrease of 27 kg.

C) an increase of 3 kg. ✓

D) a decrease of 29 kg.

Refer to figure. An extract from a typical flight plan produced by an airline flight planning tool. The remaining fuel overhead KOGAS is 5210 kg. Assume that the fuel flow remains the same as experienced between OKEPI and KOGAS and that the actual times between the waypoints are as planned. What is the estimated remaining fuel overhead TOD?

A) 3060 kg

B) 3326 kg

C) 3112 kg

D) 3182 kg ✓

Refer to figure. The annex shows the fuel breakdown for a flight from VOGO (Goa) to EGCC (Manchester). The pilots decide to carry an extra 2300 kg of fuel due to weather at the destination. Using a fuel flow of 4.5 tonnes per hour, how much extra holding time in minutes will this extra fuel give at the destination of EGCC, if required?

A) 27 min

B) 23 min ✓

C) 19 min

D) 15 min

Refer to CAP 697 figure 4.3.6. Given the following information, find the required Alternate Fuel to reach both alternates for an IFR Commercial Air Transport flight of duration 8 hours to a destination for which the operator has nominated two destination alternates ALTN1 and ALTN2. At the destination, meteorological information is available, weather conditions are expected to be above the planning minima within ETA +/- 1 hour, two runways are available and usable, the ceiling will be 1500 ft, and the ground visibility 4 km. Distance to ALTN1: 200 NM Wind to ALTN1: 50 kt HWC Distance to ALTN2: 275 NM Wind to ALTN2: 30 kt TWC Landing Mass at alternates: 55.0 t

A) 2150 kg

B) 2350 kg

C) 2050 kg ✓

D) 1950 kg

The aircraft's tanks have a capacity of 868 kg. The basic mission fuel consumption for an aircraft with the pilot only is 200 kg/h with 400 kg of fuel on board. The pilot has to deliver a parcel of 300 kg. The effect on fuel burn for an increased weight is 10 kg / 100 kg of additional weight. Additionally, due to poor weather expected along the way the pilot decides to take an extra fuel of 45 min. What is the take off fuel required for this flight?

A) 550 kg

B) 560 kg

C) 580 kg

D) 595 kg ✓

How should you calculate the additional fuel required to reach an alternate airport with an elevation of 2000 ft, using an aircraft with a fuel consumption rate of 5000 kg/h?

A) Calculate using expected headwinds or tailwinds ✓

B) Add contingency fuel of 5%

C) Calculate based on standard reserve requirements

D) Calculate based on the extra time needed to climb to 2000 ft

The minimum altitude for the route being flown is 7000 ft. Considering headwinds ranging from 9 to 16 knots, you need to determine the highest ground mileage per gallon of fuel. The true airspeeds (TAS) provided range between 169 and 175 knots, and the fuel flow is constant at 15.5 GPH at all altitudes. Which altitude provides the highest ground mileage per GPH?

A) 9000 ft - TAS: 169 knots, Headwind: 16 knots

B) 8000 ft - TAS: 171 knots, Headwind: 12 knots

C) 7000 ft - TAS: 173 knots, Headwind: 10 knots

D) 6000 ft - TAS: 175 knots, Headwind: 9 knots ✓

Calculate the contingency fuel required for the flight, rounded to the nearest 10 kg. Trip fuel: 2300 kg Holding fuel flow above destination: 2000 kg/hr Holding fuel flow above alternate: 1800 kg/hr

A) 70 kg

B) 150 kg

C) 170 kg ✓

D) 115 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination aerodrome: 6 minutes Climb to cruising altitude: 8 minutes Cruise distance: 350 NM Cruise TAS: 265 kt Headwind: 15 kt Descent to the alternate aerodrome: 10 minutes Approach and Landing at the alternate aerodrome: 5 minutes

A) 108 min

B) 113 min ✓

C) 107 min

D) 99 min

A commercial operator is planning to operate a medium range jet transport aeroplane to destination 1, but with destination 2 available as a suitable aerodrome for a fuel stop as per the reduced contingency fuel regulations. There is also a suitable ERA aerodrome available for the flight to destination 2. Given the following information, calculate the minimum take-off fuel required. Average fuel flow: 3010 kg/hr Flight time from departure to decision point: 4 hr 29 min Flight Time from decision point to destination 1: 1 hr 46 min Alternate fuel: 1455 kg Flight Time from decision point to destination 2: 0 hr 46 min Alternate fuel: 1906 kg Final reserve: 1360 kg

A) 21 375 kg

B) 22 277 kg

C) 21 894 kg ✓

D) 19 285 kg

Refer to figure. What is the total fuel capacity for an aeroplane fitted with the tanks listed below? Left Wing Tank Right Wing Tank Centre Tank 1 Additional Centre Tank

A) 21 228 kg ✓

B) 23 577 kg

C) 19 285 kg

D) 22 277 kg

For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the block fuel required for a 1 hours and 50 min cruise time VFR flight with a class B multi-engined piston aircraft? The departure aerodrome will be used as the destination alternate. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Taxi fuel: 8 L Cruise fuel consumption: 58 L/h Holding fuel Consumption: 50 L/h Departure and Climb fuel: 30 L Go Around and Climb fuel: 30 L Approach and Landing fuel: 14 L

A) 324 L

B) 340 L

C) 245.8 L

D) 354 L ✓

A Commercial Air Transport Piston Engine aircraft is performing a VFR flight. Given the following information what is the minimum take-off fuel? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Flight time: 2 hours Fuel Flow: 30 USG/h Taxi Fuel: 2 USG No Destination Alternate

A) 63 USG

B) 93 USG ✓

C) 95 USG

D) 90 USG

The fuel flow of a turbine engine is 190 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75 and any other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow will be…

A) 200 kg/h

B) 267 kg/h

C) 213 kg/h

D) 190 kg/h ✓

Extra fuel is carried to account for foreseen situations that may require more fuel than originally planned. Which of the following scenarios justifies the addition of extra fuel?

A) Unexpected air traffic delays at the alternate airport

B) Expected higher fuel consumption due to a known MEL item ✓

C) Unanticipated runway closure at the destination

D) Unforeseen weather phenomena en route

Given a scenario with specified holding and cruise fuel flow rates, how can you calculate the minimum legal fuel required and estimate the block fuel for the flight?

A) Combine holding and cruise fuel flows for minimum legal fuel; estimate block fuel based on current weather conditions and expected flight duration ✓

B) Determine minimum legal fuel based on cruise fuel flow only; estimate block fuel using average fuel consumption rates

C) Calculate minimum legal fuel based on holding fuel flow only; estimate block fuel based on aircraft manufacturer's recommendations

D) Sum the holding and cruise fuel flows for minimum legal fuel; estimate block fuel based on previous flights

What is the additional fuel requirement based on the Off-Block Fuel (OBF) and the Critical Fuel Scenarios (CFS) for two alternate airports?

A) Lowest CFS value

B) Highest CFS value

C) Smallest difference between CFS and OBF ✓

D) Biggest difference between CFS and OBF

How much additional fuel should be carried based on the following critical points along your flight? ETP1: FOB: 8100 kg, CFS: 8260 kg ETP2: FOB: 6250 kg, CFS: 6360 kg

A) 6360 kg

B) 8260 kg

C) 110 kg

D) 160 kg ✓

Given the following information, what is the maximum amount of Extra Fuel that can be uploaded for this Commercial Air Transport flight? MTOM: 2150 lb MLM: 2030 lb ZFM: 1803 lb Planned T/O Fuel: 35 US gal Trip Fuel: 27 US gal Fuel Tank Capacity: 68 US gal Specific Gravity: 0.72

A) 33 US gal

B) 41 US gal

C) 29 US gal

D) 22 US gal ✓

If the landing gear is retracted and the landing gear doors stay open the fuel burn is an extra 15%. How does this affect the FMC?

A) The FMS remains reliable and the contingency fuel covers the increased fuel consumption.

B) The FMC reduces thrust on the engines to compensate for the increased fuel consumption.

C) The FMS remains reliable because it recalculates fuel consumption and compensates the increased fuel flow.

D) The FMC is unable to adjust for the increase in fuel burn so fuel calculation is not precise. ✓

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engine jet aeroplane. Due to airspace restrictions ATC instructs you to descend to FL360 and change your speed to Mach 0.727. Given the following information, what is the fuel you will use for the remainder of the cruise time? Distance to Top-of-Descent: 220 NM Aircraft mass: 50 000 kg TAT: -42°C Average wind component: 45 kt tailwind Consider a constant aircraft of mass 50 000 kg for calculation purposes.

A) 967 kg

B) 892 kg

C) 865 kg ✓

D) 837 kg

Determine the minimum planning fuel required for departure, for the following planned flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 2862 lb Contingency Fuel: 143 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 494 lb Final Reserve Fuel: 430 lb Taxi Fuel: 100 lb Extra Fuel: 300 lb Tankering Fuel: 971 lb A destination alternate is required.

A) 5200 lb

B) 4329 lb ✓

C) 4029 lb

D) 3929 lb

Based on the following information: Price ratio: 0.898 Air distance: 2650 NAM Maximum Takeoff Mass (MTOM): 208 000 kg Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 184 500 kg Planned Takeoff Fuel: 30 000 kg Trip Fuel: 23 000 kg What is the planned Take-off Mass (TOM), and does it comply with MTOM and MLM limits?

A) Planned TOM: 198 500 kg; complies with both MTOM and MLM.

B) Planned TOM: 210 000 kg; exceeds both MTOM and MLM.

C) Planned TOM: 203 000 kg; complies with both MTOM and MLM. ✓

D) Planned TOM: 208 000 kg; complies with MTOM but exceeds MLM.

Given two destination alternates, specific distances, wind conditions, and fuel consumption graphs, what is the minimum alternate fuel required, if the weather at the destination is above planning minima?

A) No alternate fuel is required as the weather is above planning minima.

B) Use the average of the required fuel for both alternates.

C) Calculate for both alternates and use the higher minimum fuel value.

D) Use the alternate closest to the destination to calculate the minimum fuel. ✓

A flight is performed without a destination alternate. The cruise fuel flow is 2500 kg/h, and the holding fuel flow is 2000 kg/h. What is the destination alternate fuel?

A) 2000 kg

B) 1000 kg

C) 500 kg ✓

D) 0 kg, as no destination alternate is required

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. However, due to turbulence, you descend from FL380 to FL360. Determine the fuel consumed at FL360 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL360 is 295 NM with a headwind of 25 kt, the TAT is -17°C and the aeroplane mass is 65 000 kg.

A) 1530 kg

B) 1630 kg ✓

C) 1702 kg

D) 1542 kg

An aircraft planning to fly a total distance of 450 NM, after flying for 1 hour 20 minutes it covers 160 NM and its actual fuel remaining is 980 I. Given the following information and assuming that the actual fuel consumption remains at the same rate, what will be the actual fuel remaining at destination? Average TAS: 145 kt Average wind component: 25 kt headwind Trip Fuel: 1350 l Planned average fuel flow: 360 l/h

A) 20 l

B) 55 l

C) 589 l

D) 310 l ✓

While briefing for a flight, the captain checks the fuel data. Based on his experience, he anticipates holding at the destination aerodrome, which will require 8 minutes of fuel. Which fuel type should this be a part of?

A) Alternate fuel

B) Contingency fuel

C) Extra fuel ✓

D) Trip fuel

Given the following information, find the contingency fuel (based on 5 minutes) for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a twin-jet aeroplane to an isolated aerodrome. Fuel consumption en-route: 2100 kg/h Fuel consumption in holding: 1200 kg/h No en-route alternate exists

A) 600 kg

B) 175 kg

C) 100 kg ✓

D) 4200 kg

Which of the following types of fuel should be remaining at the destination alternate?

A) Trip and alternate

B) Contingency and alternate

C) Final reserve, alternate and contingency

D) Final reserve and contingency ✓

A pilot is planning to fly a 200 NGM trip with a TAS of 150 kt. The aircraft burns 4 kg/NAM and initially, there is a 10 kt tailwind. For every 10°C increase in temperature, the TAS increases by 1 kt. Which of the following scenarios will result in the lowest fuel burn?

A) Headwind component increased by 15 kt.

B) Tailwind component increased by 10 kt. ✓

C) Temperature increased by 10°C.

D) Temperature decreased by 15°C.

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 130 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 60 000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 1450 kg

B) 1092 kg

C) 1240 kg ✓

D) 1140 kg

Given the following information, calculate how much fuel you burn more or less when cruising at FL360 instead of FL320: Cruise speed: M 0.78 Temperature conditions: ISA Cruise distance left: 1080 NM Fuel Flow: 2365 kg/hr Wind conditions at FL360: 50 kt headwind Wind conditions at FL320: 50 kt tailwind

A) 1155 kg less

B) 1155 kg more

C) 1300 kg less

D) 1300 kg more ✓

Based on the following information, what is the minimum block fuel required for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aircraft using the Basic Fuel Scheme without any modifications? Taxi Fuel: 300 kg Trip fuel: 85 000 kg Contingency fuel: 500 kg for 5 minutes Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg Alternate fuel: 5500 kg Fuel tankering: 1500 kg

A) 99 550 kg

B) 98 050 kg ✓

C) 94 500 kg

D) 95 800 kg

Refer to figure. Given the information in the Flight Log excerpt, calculate the total fuel used from BRAVO to DELTA, provided that the flight conditions on the flight legs from BRAVO to CHARLIE and the fuel consumption remain unchanged.

A) 793 lb

B) 624 lb

C) 949 lb ✓

D) 2907 lb

Refer to figure. You are cruising at FL380 with a twin-engined jet aeroplane. However, due to turbulence, you descend from FL380 to FL360. Determine the fuel consumed at FL360 until the top of descent (TOD). The distance travelled at FL360 is 295 NM with a headwind of 40 kt, the TAT is -17°C and the aeroplane mass is 65 000 kg.

A) 1530 kg

B) 1628 kg

C) 1702 kg ✓

D) 1542 kg

Refer to figure. The annex shows a typical fuel plan with operational impact factors as produced by a flight planning tool. When arriving at the plane the Commander is informed that some additional cargo has been offloaded. Use the data below to determine the revised Trip Fuel. Cargo: -600 kg Cruising level: -2000 ft Cruising speed according to the flight plan.

A) 14 720 kg

B) 14 970 kg ✓

C) 15 132 kg

D) 15 190 kg

Determine the weight of 867 US Gallons of fuel (SG 0.78).

A) 8122 lbs

B) 5635 lbs ✓

C) 5361 lbs

D) 2560 lbs

Given the following information, calculate the destination alternate fuel: Missed approach at destination: 300 kg Climb to cruise: 800 kg Cruise: 900 kg Descent to alternate: 100 kg Approach and landing at alternate: 210 kg Holding fuel flow: 2120 kg/h Missed approach at alternate: 210 kg

A) 3370 kg

B) 2310 kg ✓

C) 2010 kg

D) 2520 kg

Given the following information, calculate the total APU fuel consumption on the ground. 1. Before departure, the APU operates for 15 minutes 2. The taxi time is expected to be 10 minutes 3. The APU consumes an additional 5 kg of fuel during startup 4. Due to modifications, the APU's fuel flow rate is 150 kg/hour, and the APU's fuel consumption during taxi is 11 kg/min

A) Approx. 144 kg

B) Approx. 265 kg

C) Approx. 153 kg ✓

D) Approx. 43 kg

The operator instructs the Pilot to carry 5000 kg of additional fuel due to a refueling issue at the destination airport. How much of this fuel is actually available for the return flight?

A) All 5000 kg will be used before arrival at the destination.

B) Exactly 5000 kg.

C) Less than 5000 kg due to increased consumption from the added weight. ✓

D) More than 5000 kg because you have contingency fuel onboard.

Given the following information, calculate the maximum extra fuel which can be tankered: Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM): 2000 lb Actual Zero Fuel Mass (AZFM): 2000 lb Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM): 2900 lb Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 2400 lb Tank capacity: 950 lb Take-off fuel: 500 lb Trip fuel: 190 lb

A) 450 lb

B) 60 lb

C) 400 lb

D) 90 lb ✓

Given the following information, how much discretionary fuel (formerly called extra fuel) can be carried: Maximum Take-Off Mass (MTOM): 2100 lb Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM): 1720 lb Maximum Landing Mass (MLM): 1900 lb Fuel tank capacity: 54.5 USG Fuel at take-off: 32 USG Trip fuel: 25 USG Specific density: 0.72

A) 23 USG

B) 22.5 USG ✓

C) 7 USG

D) 31.2 USG

An aircraft is planned to fly from Airport A to Airport B and back to Airport A. In which case is fuel tankering recommended with respect to fuel price differences between the airports?

A) Fuel price at Airport A must be lower than at Airport B to reduce the aircraft's gross mass at take-off.

B) Fuel price at Airport A must be higher than at Airport B to minimize the overall fuel cost.

C) Fuel price at Airport B must be equal to or higher than at Airport A to justify tankering.

D) Fuel price at Airport B must be significantly higher than at Airport A to compensate for the increased fuel burn due to extra mass. ✓

You are planning an IFR flight where a destination alternate is not possible, what is the regulatory fuel overhead the destination? You must carry...

A) No additional fuel and no contingency fuel.

B) Additional fuel, and you need to apply the isolated aerodrome procedure. ✓

C) No additional fuel, but you need to double the contingency fuel.

D) Discretionary fuel, only if required by the commander.

You’re at the gate, prepared for departure, with 30 minutes of discretionary fuel onboard. ATC then advises that due to a runway closure, taxi time will be increased by 15 minutes. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

A) You may proceed without any further fuel consideration, regardless of the taxi delay.

B) You cannot depart because the contingency fuel is not enough to compensate for the taxi delay.

C) You cannot depart and need to add more taxi fuel.

D) You can use discretionary fuel for the taxi and depart. ✓

Refer to figure. Calculate the fuel required to an alternate located 140 NM away at an approximate landing weight of 50 000 kg and a headwind of 20 knots.

A) 900 kg

B) 1092 kg

C) 1140 kg

D) 1200 kg ✓

Refer to figure. Determine the alternate fuel required, given the following information: Distance to alternate: 350 NM Zero fuel mass: 50 000 kg Final reserve fuel: 2500 kg Tailwind: 25 kt

A) 2150 kg ✓

B) 2950 kg

C) 2400 kg

D) 1750 kg

"Contingency Fuel" is the amount of fuel that should account for (1) _ to the (2) _ aerodrome.

A) (1) all known predictable factors; (2) alternate

B) (1) unforeseen or unpredictable factors; (2) alternate

C) (1) all known predictable factors; (2) destination

D) (1) unforeseen or unpredictable factors; (2) destination ✓

Determine the weight of 860 US Gallons of fuel (SG 0.75).

A) 2441 lbs

B) 5635 lbs

C) 5380 lbs ✓

D) 5080 lbs

Refer to figure. The figure shows a typical fuel plan for a Commercial Air Transport flight with operational impact factors as produced by a flight planning tool. Since the aeroplane has arrived late, it is planned to fly the next flight at a higher speed. Use the data below to calculate the revised total trip fuel. Revised speed: M 0.80 Revised weight: 1500 kg down Cruising Altitude: Planned Flight Level

A) 15 074 kg ✓

B) 15 275 kg

C) 14 435 kg

D) 14 636 kg

Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport flight, what is the time (in minutes) needed from the destination to the alternate aerodrome? Assume an operation with a Performance Class A aeroplane applying the Basic Fuel Scheme or with a helicopter (the basic fuel planning provisions are the same). Missed approach at the destination: 5 min Climb to cruise level: 7 min Cruise distance: 70 NM Cruise TAS: 180 kt Wind component: +20 kt Anticipated hold at the alternate: 15 min Descent to the alternate: 6 min Approach to the alternate: 5 min

A) 70 min

B) 54 min

C) 59 min ✓

D) 63 min

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 1600 lb Alternate Fuel: 950 lb Taxi Fuel: 180 lb Reserve Fuel: 480 lb En-route alternate: NOT available Fuel to fly 5 minutes at 1500 ft above destination: 115 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 230 lb

B) 90 lb

C) 115 lb ✓

D) 80 lb

Given the following data for the pre-flight calculations, determine the Contingency Fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 878 lb Alternate Fuel: 950 lb Taxi Fuel: 180 lb Reserve Fuel: 480 lb En-route alternate: NOT applicable Fuel to fly 5 minutes at 1500 ft above destination: 80 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 65 lb

B) 80 lb ✓

C) 115 lb

D) 44 lb

An aircraft flies from Airport A to Airport B and then flies back to Airport A. The distance between the two airports is 100 NM and the wind conditions remain constant throughout the whole flight. If the aircraft's true airspeed (TAS) is 120 kt, a 15 kt headwind component is experienced during the outbound leg from A to B and the fuel flow is 200 kg/hr, how much is the total trip fuel required for the entire flight from Airport A to Airport B and back to Airport A?

A) 500 kg

B) 338 kg ✓

C) 305 kg

D) 250 kg

The Contingency Fuel is an amount of fuel to compensate for...

A) A missed approach at the destination alternate aerodrome.

B) A missed approach at the destination aerodrome.

C) A different, longer STAR than the one originally planned. ✓

D) An anticipated delay due to a work strike of the rescue and fire-fighting service.

Given the following information, calculate the Contingency Fuel for the following Commercial Air Transport Flight with a Performance Class A aeroplane, assuming the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies. Trip Fuel: 4300 lb Destination Alternate Fuel: 423 lb En-route alternate: NOT applicable Final Reserve Fuel: 570 lb Fuel to fly for 5 minutes above destination: 115 lb Extra Fuel: 0 lb Discretionary Fuel: 0 lb

A) 129 lb

B) 115 lb

C) 215 lb ✓

D) 320 lb

The Commander of a commercial air transport IFR flight receives an updated in-flight weather report. After in-flight fuel check, he/she determines that the fuel expected to remain upon arrival at the destination is less than the Final Reserve Fuel (FRF). A destination alternate aerodrome is not required for this flight and the Basic Fuel Scheme without variations is applied. Which action should be taken by the Commander?

A) Return to the departure aerodrome immediately.

B) Divert to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be assured with NO less than the FRF. ✓

C) Continue to the destination aerodrome as planned by using the FRF if it is sufficient to reach there.

D) Replan the fuel and apply a Reduced Contingency Fuel procedure, in order to continue to the destination aerodrome.

Refer to figure. According to the provided flight log excerpt, what will the actual fuel consumption be for the flight leg from BRAVO to DELTA, assuming that the flight conditions and fuel usage remain unchanged for this segment?

A) 121 Imp gal

B) 177 Imp gal

C) 115 Imp gal ✓

D) 110 Imp gal

Given the following information, calculate how much fuel you burn more or less when cruising at FL360 instead of FL320. Cruise speed: M 0.74 Temperature conditions: ISA Cruise distance left: 1080 NM Fuel flow at FL360: 2365 kg/hr Fuel flow at FL320: 2483 kg/hr Wind conditions at FL360: 50 kt headwind Wind conditions at FL320: 50 kt tailwind

A) 1170 kg less

B) 1170 kg more

C) 1240 kg less

D) 1240 kg more ✓

During cruise, the crew plan a diversion. Due to a maximum landing mass restriction, they decide to jettison 180 kg of fuel with specific gravity of 0.8. What volume of fuel needs to be jettisoned?

A) 35 USG

B) 144 l

C) 47.4 USG

D) 225 l ✓

Given the following information, what is the minimum fuel required for an IFR flight to an airport of a piston-engined aircraft, ignoring the contingency fuel? Fuel flow: 40 litres/hr Flight time to destination aerodrome: 01:45 Flight time to the alternate: 00:35

A) 123 litres ✓

B) 113 litres

C) 100 litres

D) 90 litres

Consider the following NOTAM. What does the abbreviation LO mean? Q) EDGG/QIXLT/I/BO/A/000/999/5002N00834E005 B) FROM: 13/10/24 09:21 C) TO: PERM E) ILS 25C LO, IDENT FR, 297KHZ, RANGE LIMITED TO 10NM

A) Limited Operation

B) Localiser Only

C) Locator ✓

D) Localiser

Which selection best describes the Point of Safe Return (PSR)? The furthest point along a planned route…

A) to which an aircraft can fly to destination or back to the departure, or alternate with reserves intact. ✓

B) to which an aircraft can fly to destination or back to the departure, or alternate with no reserves intact.

C) to which an aircraft can fly to destination or back to the departure, or alternate in the same time.

D) to which an aircraft can fly to destination or back to the departure, or alternate with safe endurance.

What is the height difference between the obstacle and the obstacle clearance altitude described in the following NOTAM? E) CRANE WITH OBST LGT 521231N 0000827E HGT 259FT AGL/302FT AMSL. VMC(C)OCA (OCH AAL) FOR ALL INSTRUMENT APPROACHES INCREASED TO 600FT AMSL

A) 341 feet.

B) 302 feet.

C) 298 feet. ✓

D) 259 feet.

From the information given in the following NOTAM, can a pilot expect a DME service if his/her track passes within 25 NM of Mildenhall at 12:00 UTC on the 27th of May? Q) EGTT/QNNAS/IV/BO/AE/000/999/5222N00029E005 A) EGUN B) FROM: 15/05/27 10:13 C) TO: 15/06/05 16:00 E) MILDENHALL TACAN MLD CH 106X 115.900MHZ UNUSEABLE DUE TO SCHEDULED MAINTENANCE. EMERGENCY ONLY: TACAN CAN BE RETURNED TO SERVICE WITHIN 15 MINUTES.

A) Yes, if the airfield has one. A TACAN has nothing to do with DME equipment.

B) No, as there is no such facility at Mildenhall.

C) No, the facility is down for maintenance. ✓

D) Yes, it is well within range.

What is the calculation basis for the Point of Safe Return (PSR)?

A) Maximum Range

B) ATC endurance

C) Safe endurance ✓

D) Trip endurance

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 340 NM GS Out: 150 kt GS Home: 120 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?

A) 151 NM ✓

B) 189 NM

C) 272 NM

D) 170 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 1500 NM Safe Endurance: 4.5 h TAS: 450 kt Ground Speed Out: 480 kt Ground Speed Home: 410 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 124 min ✓

B) 63 min

C) 66 min

D) 101 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 3000 NM Safe Endurance: 8 h TAS: 520 kt Ground Speed Out: 600 kt Ground Speed Home: 440 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 203 min ✓

B) 117 min

C) 173 min

D) 277 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 5000 NM Safe Endurance: 10 h TAS: 450 kt Ground Speed Out: 500 kt Ground Speed Home: 400 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 2500 NM

B) 2778 NM

C) 2222 NM ✓

D) 1111 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2000 NM Safe Endurance: 5 h TAS: 500 kt Ground Speed Out: 480 kt Ground Speed Home: 520 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 624 NM

B) 1040 NM

C) 752 NM

D) 1248 NM ✓

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 150 NM Safe Endurance: 3.2 h TAS: 90 kt Ground Speed Out: 100 kt Ground Speed Home: 80 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) Distance: 67 NM Time: 50 min

B) Distance: 71 NM Time: 47 min

C) Distance: 8 NM Time: 5 min

D) Distance: 142 NM Time: 85 min ✓

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 240 NM Safe Endurance: 3.5 h TAS: 125 kt Ground Speed Out: 110 kt Ground Speed Home: 140 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) Distance: 216 NM Time: 118 min ✓

B) Distance: 108 NM Time: 52 min

C) Distance: 24 NM Time: 13 min

D) Distance: 134 NM Time: 58 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Safe Endurance: 2 h TAS: 120 kt Ground Speed Out: 135 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) Distance: 79 NM Time: 45 min

B) Distance: 62 NM Time: 28 min

C) Distance: 59 NM Time: 30 min

D) Distance: 118 NM Time: 53 min ✓

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 500 NM Safe Endurance: 4 h TAS: 140 kt Ground Speed Out: 150 kt Ground Speed Home: 130 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) Distance: 139 NM Time: 60 min

B) Distance: 279 NM Time: 111 min ✓

C) Distance: 232 NM Time: 107 min

D) Distance: 221 NM Time: 89 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Safe Endurance: 2.5 h TAS: 115 kt Ground Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 179 NM

B) 145 NM ✓

C) 73 NM

D) 255 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 200 NM Safe Endurance: 3 h TAS: 130 kt Ground Speed Out: 150 kt Ground Speed Home: 110 kt What is the distance PSR from the departure point?

A) 85 NM

B) 190 NM ✓

C) 10 NM

D) 95 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 300 NM Safe Endurance: 4 h TAS: 110 kt Ground Speed Out: 120 kt Ground Speed Home: 100 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 136 NM

B) 109 NM

C) 82 NM

D) 218 NM ✓

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 270 NM True track: 030 W/V: 120/35 TAS: 125 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?

A) Distance: 141 NM Time: 65 min

B) Distance: 130 NM Time: 68 min

C) Distance: 135 NM Time: 68 min ✓

D) Distance: 141 NM Time: 68 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 435 NM GS Out: 110 kt GS Home: 130 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?

A) 218 NM

B) 368 NM

C) 236 NM ✓

D) 199 NM

Given: Distance A to B: 3060 NM Mean groundspeed "out": 440 kt Mean groundspeed "back": 540 kt Safe Endurance: 10 hours The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:

A) 3 hours 55 minutes

B) 5 hours 20 minutes

C) 5 hours 45 minutes

D) 5 hours 31 minutes ✓

Given: Distance A to B: 2050 NM Mean groundspeed "on": 440 kt Mean groundspeed "back": 540 kt The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is:

A) 1025 NM

B) 1130 NM ✓

C) 1153 NM

D) 920 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2380 NM GS Out: 420 kt GS Home: 520 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A) 152 min

B) 19 min

C) 188 min ✓

D) 123 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 1345 NM GS Out: 480 kt GS Home: 360 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A) 50 min

B) 72 min ✓

C) 128 min

D) 96 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2500 NM GS Out: 540 kt GS Home: 470 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A) 149 min

B) 28 min

C) 171 min

D) 129 min ✓

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 1860 NM GS Out: 360 kt GS Home: 400 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A) 163 min ✓

B) 147 min

C) 22 min

D) 132 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 950 NM GS Out: 275 kt GS Home: 225 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A) 114 min

B) 139 min

C) 39 min

D) 93 min ✓

From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities?

A) NOTAM

B) AIP ✓

C) NAV/RAD charts

D) ATCC

From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB?

A) AIP

B) NOTAM ✓

C) ATCC broadcasts

D) SIGMET

Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel: 15000 kg Minimum reserve fuel: 3500 kg Outbound: TAS: 425 kt Head wind component: 30 kt Fuel flow: 2150 kg/h Return: TAS: 430 kt Tail wind component: 20 kt

A) 1491 NM

B) 1125 NM ✓

C) 1463 NM

D) 1143 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 480 NM Safe Endurance: 5 h True Track: 315 W/V: 100/20 TAS: 115 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 141 NM

B) 199 NM

C) 280 NM ✓

D) 205 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Safe Endurance: 5 h True Track: 170 W/V: 140/25 TAS: 125 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 303 NM ✓

B) 30 NM

C) 194 NM

D) 150 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 150 NM Safe Endurance: 2.4 h True Track: 250 W/V: 280/15 TAS: 120 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 83 NM

B) 142 NM ✓

C) 98 NM

D) 71 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 550 NM Safe Endurance: 3.6 h True Track: 200 W/V: 220/15 TAS: 130 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 116 NM

B) 231 NM ✓

C) 305 NM

D) 319 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 4630 NM Safe Endurance: 12.4 h True Track: 240 W/V: 060/80 TAS: 420 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 1966 NM

B) 2510 NM ✓

C) 6106 NM

D) 1419 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 950 NM Safe Endurance: 3.5 h TAS: 360 kt Ground Speed Out: 320 kt Ground Speed Home: 400 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) Distance: 622 NM Time: 117 min ✓

B) Distance: 528 NM Time: 79 min

C) Distance: 328 NM Time: 62 min

D) Distance: 311 NM Time: 52 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 6340 NM Safe Endurance: 15 h True Track: 090 W/V: 270/100 TAS: 400 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 2813 NM ✓

B) 1878 NM

C) 2584 NM

D) 2560 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2450 NM Safe Endurance: 7.5 h TAS: 410 kt Ground Speed Out: 360 kt Ground Speed Home: 460 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point?

A) 156 min

B) 198 min

C) 111 min

D) 252 min ✓

Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel: 15000 kg Minimum reserve fuel: 3500 kg TAS out: 425 kt Head wind component out: 30 kt TAS return: 430 kt Tailwind component return: 20 kt Average fuel flow: 2150 kg/h

A) 2 h 43 min

B) 3 h 43 min

C) 2 h 51 min ✓

D) 2 h 59 min

Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the point of equal time (PET). Given: Distance from WP 3 to WP 4: 750 NM TAS out: 430 kt TAS return: 425 kt Tailwind component out: 30 kt Headwind component return: 40 kt

A) 408 NM

B) 342 NM ✓

C) 375 NM

D) 403 NM

During the validity period of the NOTAM given below, what route shall be filed in the ATS flight plan for an aircraft that is RNAV equipped and has EDDH as the destination? Q) EDGG/QANLC/I/NBO/E/245/660/5140N00746E020 B) FROM: 15/12/18 14:20 C) TO: 16/03/18 23:59 EST E) RNAV-ROUTE UZ907 BTN ABAMI AND OSDIK NOT AVBL FOR DEST EDDV, EDDH, EDHI, EDHL, EDHK, EDDW, EDWB, EDWE, EDWI. THESE FLIGHTS SHALL FILE ABAMI UM170 OSN.

A) UZ907 from ABAMI to OSN.

B) UZ907 from ABAMI to OSDIK.

C) UM170 from ABAMI to OSN. ✓

D) UM170 from ABAMI to OSDIK.

Given the following NOTAM information, what changes apply to SID KOMIB 1E? >>> EDDF (FRANKFURT MAIN) > END-OF-BULLETIN

A) CONTACT LANGEN RADAR WHEN ADVISED ON 136.125. ✓

B) CONTACT TOWER WHEN ADVISED BY LANGEN ON 136.125.

C) CONTACT LANGEN ON 136.125 AND REMAIN ON TOWER FREQUENCY.

D) CONTACT LANGEN RADAR IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF ON 136.125.

According to the following NOTAM, what time does the Tower close on Saturdays in winter? AMEND AD HR: WINTER: MON-FRI 0815-1215, 1315-1730 SAT 0815-1230. SUMMER: MON-SAT 0700-1730. APP/TWR: WINTER: MON-FRI 0815-1215, 1315-1730 SAT 0815-1215. SUMMER: MON-SAT 0700-1800.

A) 12:15 ✓

B) 18:00

C) 17:30

D) 12:30

What should be considered when using the following NOTAM information from the transmitter during the validity period? Q) EDGG/QNNCS/IV/BO/AE/000/999/5049N00638E025 A) ETNN B) FROM: 15/11/11 09:00 C) TO: 16/02/10 21:50 EST E) AD ETNN: MOBILE TACAN NOE CH79Y IN USE. PSN 504947N0063847E 259DEG 859M FROM ARP.

A) The distance indications have to be adjusted by 859 metres.

B) An approach to the ARP is possible by following the 259 degree radial.

C) The slant range indications are only valid for the position indicated. ✓

D) The transmitter may move from the position indicated.

According to the following NOTAM, what is the maximum height of the balloon involved? Q) EUAD/QWCLW/IV/M/W/000/004/5339N00135W001 A) EUAD B) FROM: 15/12/14 13:48C) TO: 16/03/06 18:30 E) UNMANNED CAPTIVE BALLOON IN LOW FLYING AREA AVOIDANCE AREA WI 1NM RADIUS. MAX HEIGHT 200FT AGL/324FT AMSL. 15/12/06/OPSLF. LOWER: Surface, UPPER: 324 Feet AMSL SCHEDULE: DEC 14 1348-1600, DEC 15-31 0700-1600, JAN 01-31 0700-1630, FEB 01-29 0700-1730, MAR 01-06 0600-1830

A) 200 feet AMSL.

B) 324 feet AGL.

C) The height is variable.

D) 324 feet AMSL. ✓

According to the following NOTAM, what is the safe distance for a civilian aircraft? Q) EUAD/QSPLT/IV/BO/AE/000/021/5212N00011E003 A) EUAD B) FROM: 16/02/09 08:30C) TO: 16/02/09 14:30 E) E BAND HIGH INTENSITY RADAR TRANSMISSION AREA (HIRTA) IN D304 RADIUS 1NM. MAX HEIGHT 472FT AGL. SAFE DISTANCES CIVILIAN ACFT 0.011NM 11FT AGL MIL ACFT VERY LOW 0.011NM 11FT AGL LOW 0.053NM 157FT AGL MEDIUM 0.077NM 242FT AGL HIGH 0.143NM 472FT AGL

A) 472 ft

B) 0.011 NM ✓

C) 0.143 NM

D) 1 NM

(For this question use annex 033-014 rev.05.11.2004 or CAP 697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Figure 4-1 and 4-2). Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass = 50000 kg, 0.78 MACH

A) 36700 ft

B) maximum operating altitude

C) 35500 ft ✓

D) 36200 ft

(For this question use annex 033-014 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2). Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane: Given: Cruise mass = 54000 kg Long range cruise or 0.74 MACH

A) 33800 ft

B) maximum operating altitude

C) 35300 ft

D) 34600 ft ✓

Refer to figure. According to NOTAM A1557/14, on the 31st December 2014 there were several cranes erected northeast of OMAL airport..

A) at the positions indicated by the shown coordinates. ✓

B) at the positions indicated by the shown coordinates, extended up to 160 ft above Mean Sea Level.

C) within the area bounded by the shown coordinates.

D) within the area bounded by the shown coordinates. The cranes were “H” shaped.

Refer to figure. According to NOTAM H5669/14, taxiway(s)..

A) B4 between taxiways B and DOM2, is not available on the 10th January 2015 at 11:00 UTC.

B) C between taxiways B2 and G, is not available on the 18th January 2015 at 12:00 local time.

C) B2 between taxiways DOM1 and B, is not available to all traffic on the 15th January 2015 at 13:00 UTC.

D) F and B3, between taxiways B and C, are not available on the 15th January 2015 at 13:00 UTC. ✓

Refer to figure. An IFR flight routes direct from New York (KJFK) to Amsterdam (EHAM) with the alternate Brussels (EBBR) on an eastbound track. There is a westerly mean wind of approximately 40 knots. Where can you expect the Point of Equal Time (PET) along the track?

A) Closer to New York. ✓

B) Closer to Amsterdam.

C) In the middle of the route to Amsterdam.

D) In the middle of the route to Brussels.

Refer to figure. A helicopter is to fly at FL110 from WUR (N49 43.1 E009 56.8) to DRN (N51 00.9 E013 35.9) on 09 FEB 2015. Given the following NOTAM, what would be the routing? NOTAM: E3631/14 – ED-R208 ACTIVATED. FL100 – FL245, 01 JAN 00:01 2015 UNTIL 31 MAR 21:59 2015. CREATED: 16 DEC 15:15 2014

A) WUR ERL LEG DRN

B) WUR GOT LEG DRN

C) WUR BAY OKG DRN ✓

D) WUR BAROM MADAX DRN

Refer to figure. What is the lower limit for the temporarily-established restricted area (ZRT)?

A) 500 ft AGL

B) Ground ✓

C) 1500 ft AMSL

D) 3500 ft AMSL

Refer to figure. What is the daily activation time for the temporarily established restricted area (ZRT)?

A) SS+30 until SR-30 ✓

B) SR+30 until SS-30

C) SS until SR

D) SR until SS

A pilot is planning a flight on the 23rd May, and plans to fly over the location mentioned below at 14:00. The maximum altitude the flight will operate at is 1500 ft. Is the following NOTAM likely to be a factor for the flight? EGPX/QRDCA/IV/BO/W/000/021/5736N00403W002 DANGER AREA D7025 ACTIVATED LOWER: SFC UPPER: 2100FT AMSL FROM: 22 MAY 15:00 TO: 30 MAY 22:59

A) No, the NOTAM is not a factor.

B) Yes, the NOTAM is a factor but only if no flight plan has been filed.

C) Yes, the information in the NOTAM is a factor. ✓

D) Only under VFR, as airways are excluded from the effects of such notifications.

What does the following text of a NOTAM indicate? SVC TEMPO TWR LOCAL CTL/CLEARANCE DELIVERY 121.0 FRI SAT 1400-2100 1311041400-1311052100EST

A) An additional frequency of 121.0 is temporarily available for a tower to control arriving and departing aircraft for designed runway(s) and for issuing clearances on Friday 4th November and Saturday 5th November 2013, between 14:00 and 21:00.

B) Tower services to control arriving and departing aircraft will be temporarily available Friday 4th November and Saturday 5th November 2013, between 14:00 and 21:00, on frequency 121.0.

C) Tower services to control arriving and departing aircraft and issuing clearances on the frequency 121.0 will be temporarily unavailable Friday 4th November and Saturday 5th November 2013, between 14:00 and 21:00.

D) Services for a temporary tower are available Friday 4th November and Saturday 5th November 2013, between 14:00 and 21:00, and frequency 121.0 will be used to control arriving and departing aircraft and for issuing clearances. ✓

Given the following NOTAM information, what operating hours can be expected for BRISTOL RADAR during the summer? ATS SURVEILLANCE SERVICES AND PROCEDURES BRISTOL LOWER AIRSPACE RADAR SER. HR CHANGED TO 1000-1800 WINTER SUMMER 1HR EARLIER ENR 1.6 PARAGRAPH 4.1.6 REFERS : NOTAM EG/B0056/16 >>> END OF BULLETIN

A) 0900-1900

B) 1000-1800

C) 0900-1700 ✓

D) 1100-1900

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 875 NM True track: 240° W/V: 060/50 TAS: 500 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?

A) Distance: 716 NM Time: 78 min

B) Distance: 438 NM Time: 53 min

C) Distance: 481 NM Time: 64 min

D) Distance: 394 NM Time: 43 min ✓

Given the following NOTAM information, what RADAR and TOWER frequency should be used by departing aircraft at 21:00 UTC? >>> EGLF &FARNBOROUGH& > END OF BULLETIN

A) TOWER frequency as specified on the chart.

B) 122.500 MHz.

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